QAI CSQA sample paper – 10

CSQA Subjective questions sample paper –10

(Quality Assurance)

Q1. Adequate attention to quality in IT normally results in
a. low system maintenance costs and customer dissatisfaction.
b. high system maintenance costs and customer satisfaction.
c. high system maintenance costs and customer dissatisfaction.
d. low system maintenance costs and customer satisfaction

Q2. The Quality manager is not a significant factor in determining the success of the ongoing success of the quality activities. (T/F)

Q3. State the four project variables

Q4. The important principle of getting something accepted is referred to as _________ rule.

Q5. The Carnegie Mellon university states that it takes at least —– to move from Level 1 to level3
a) 4 years
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 5 years

Q6. An organization in Initial Phase of Quality Function Maturation is result-driven, focusing on defining and controlling product quality. (T/F)

Q7. In Final Phase of Quality Function Maturation an organization’s objectives move from control to assurance. The emphasis is on defining, stabilizing, measuring, and improving work processes (T/F)

Q8. During Intermediate Phase of Quality Function Maturation, objectives such as consulting, motivating, and benchmarking move the organization toward optimization. (T/F)

Q9. State the major Drivers that Change the Role of the QA Analyst.

Q10. Quality management as a ___________ philosophy leads management to begin defining, measuring and improving processes.

Q11. Dr. Deming said that a leader of ____________ is needed to drive the quality management process.

Q12. The benefits of the Quality are always achieved without the assistance of QA Analysts. (T/F)

Q13. State the contents of the Quality charter.

Q14. A major reason to appoint a quality manager is to ensure that there will be a continuous force on quality in the organization. (T/F)

Q15. The best positioning for reporting for quality groups is
a. Reports to senior IT manager
b. Reports to manager of systems programming
c. Reports outside of the IT function

Q16. Quality tools can be used to
a) To define measures
b) To manipulate measures
c) Collect data and Improve processes
f) All of the above.

Q17. Name the three major Quality tools.

Q18. __________ is a technique used to quickly generate a quantity of creative or original ideas on or about a process, problem, product, or service.

Q19. To generate affinity diagrams, steps should be continued after __________
a) Affinity diagram
b) Force field analysis
c) Cause and effect Diagram
d) Brain storming
e) None of the above

Q20. Define Nominal Group Technique.

Q21. Cause and Effect diagrams are applicable for
a. Analyzing problems.
b. Identify sources of defect causes.
c. Scheduling problems/Cycle times
d. Implementing anything new
e. None of the above
f. All of the above
g. a,b,c

Q22. Force field analysis is useful in
a. Implementing a quality function
b. Developing education and training programs
c. Empowering the work force
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

Q23. A ________ is a more detailed flowchart that depicts processes, their relationships, and their owners.

Q24. What are the three types of benchmarking?

Q25. Collection of data is the step in planning phase. (T/F)

Q26. Determine Current Competitive Gap is one of the steps in analysis phase (T/F)

Q27. Define Matrix.

Q28. Write the two common types of matrices.

Q29. Give an example of task deployment.

Q30. Name some Statistical Tools.

Q31. A _______ is a form used to gather and record data in an organized manner.
a) Check Sheet
b) Pareto Chart
c) Affinity Diagram
d) None of the above

Q32. Check sheets can be used to record end user surveys. (T/F)

Q33. Histogram is a bar graph. (T/F)

Q34. Histogram can explain graphically whether the process is in control or out of control (T/F)

Q35. Pareto chart is a special type of histogram. (T/F)

Q36. Run charts are often used to monitor and quantify process outputs before a control chart is developed. (T/F)

Q37. What are the two types of variation?

Q38. A scatter plot is used for problem solving and understanding cause-and-effect relationships (T/F)

Q39. The stem-and-leaf chart is a variation of the bar chart using the actual distributed values shown by category (T/F)

Q40. Bar chart is two-dimensional. (T/F)

Q41. A pie chart graphically presents the ____________ of a total population.

Q42. ________ Chart is a variation of the bar chart using the actual distributed values shown by category.

Q43. The first step in generating a histogram is to
a) Clarify what must be collected objectively.
b) Gather data and organize it from lowest to highest value.
c) Tally the results
d) Use brain storming
e) None of the above

Q44. Questions on check sheets need not be organized by topic. (T/F)

Q45. Line charts are used to compare
a) Like units
b) Related or fixed variables
c) Like periods
d) Unlike periods
e) unlike units
f) ABC
g) All of the above.

Q46. Pareto chart is otherwise called as _________ rule.

Q47. Formula for Effective Behavior Change.
a. Behavior = Individual + Environment
b. Behavior = Individual — Environment
c. Behavior = Individual * Environment
d. Behavior = Individual / Environment

Q48. State the three deployment phases.

Q49. Some key activities performed by QA analysts that are not normally performed by internal auditors are
a. Developing policies, procedures, and standards
b. Acquiring and implementing tools and methodologies
c. Marketing or creating awareness of quality programs and concepts
d. Measuring quality
e. All of the above

Q50. _____________verify compliance to corporate policies, plans, procedures, and applicable laws and regulations


Answers:
1. D
2. F
3. Scope, schedule, resources, and quality
4. Mafia
5. c
6. T
7. F
8. F
9. The two major drivers that change the role of the QA analyst are the management philosophy used in the IT group, and the personal belief system of managers
10. Process-oriented
11. Statistical methodology
12. F
13. Scope, Objectives, Responsibilities
14. T
15. a
16. False
17. Management Tools, Statistical Tools, Presentation Tools
18. Brainstorming
19. d)
20. The nominal group technique is a structured, facilitated technique where all team members participate by individually ranking ideas, issues, concerns, and solutions, and then achieve consensus by combining the individual rankings
21. g
22. d
23. Process map
24. Process Benchmarking, Product Benchmarking, Performance Benchmarking
25. T
26. T
27. A matrix is a structured, problem-solving technique used to show the relationship between groupings
28. the L-type matrix and the T-type matrix.
29. A combined example would be a training class
30. Check Sheet/Histogram/Pareto Chart/Run Chart/Control Chart/Scatter Plot
31. Check sheet
32. T
33. T
34. T
35. T
36. T
37. Common or random causes of variation
38. T
39. T
40. T
41. Components
42. The stem-and-leaf chart
43. B. Gather data and organize it from lowest to highest value.
44. F
45. f a,b,c
46. 20-80
47. a. Behavior = Individual + Environment
48. Assessment, Strategic, Tactical
49. e
50. Internal auditors

QAI CSQA sample paper – 9

CSQA Subjective questions sample paper –9

(Quality Planning)

Q1. _________ establishes the vision and strategic goals.

Q2. Quality planning should be integrated into the IT plan so that they become a single plan. (T/F)

Q3. _________focuses on the policies, processes and procedures which assure that the defined requirements are implemented, and the implemented requirements meet the customer’s needs.

Q4. The management cycle is also known as _________

Q5. Planning is a management responsibility (T/F)

Q6. Quality planning should focus on two major activities: _________and _________.

Q7. The _________is to define the work and work activities that will be conducted during the planning period

Q8. Many IT organizations develop both a business plan and a quality plan. However, they do not integrate these plans. Due to this the Results are desirable (T/F)

Q9. Quality planning should be a defined process indicating who is involved in planning and the specific work procedures and deliverables included within the planning process. (T/F)

Q10. Before effective quality planning can occur these prerequisites should be met: _________, _______, ________ documented.

Q11. There is standard off-the-shelf plan for planning that can be universally applied to every situation (T/F)

Q12. The primary purpose of planning is not to produce a rigid plan, but to facilitate intelligent delegation with responsible participation by providing a better method of reaching and revising agreements (T/F)

Q13. There are ______ planning activities.

Q14. The purpose of ____ planning activity is to both define the planning objectives, and to relate the plan to other documents that involve individuals

Q15. Planners need to know the environment in which the deliverables will be developed as well as the environment in which the deliverables will be operated (T/F)

Q16. ______________Planning activity identifies those probable developments that will affect the ability to achieve the project objectives

Q17. Objectives/Goals Planning address:
a. Project objectives and goals expressed in quantitative terms
b. Any qualifications for objectives that can impact the sequence of work
c. Alternative strategies can be determined
d. All of the above

Q18. ___________ planning activity needs to identify all of the policies, procedures and practices that will impact the implementation and operation of the project

Q19. Strategy/Tactics Planning activity should address
a. Select preferred strategy among alternatives
b. Select best tactics among alternatives
c. Select tactics that maximize strength and minimize weakness
d. All of the above

Q20. Priorities/Schedules Planning activity develops precise milestones that identify steps or activities that are essential to accomplishing the project in the sequence in which they must occur. (T/F)

Q21. Budget/Resources Planning activity should address:
a. Monetary resources needed
b. Skills / competencies needed
c. Hardware / software needed
d. Support needed
e. All of the above

Q22. The quality plan should identify specific processes to be defined, deployed and Improved with specific objectives and goals defined for those work processes. (T/F)

Q23. A quality plan should include a __________ whose achievement would be a quality goal.

Q24. ________ has developed an approach that defines six categories of processes that need maturing.

Q25. In the QAI model, the processes needed to manage an IT organization fall into six categories. Name them.

Q26. Maturity means evolving slowly toward a desired goal. (T/F).

Q27. Without the management processes in place, the movement to higher levels will not occur. (T/F)

Q28. The product focus emphasizes management by objective; specifically meeting schedules, managing people and jobs, and using test and control to determine whether those objectives have been met. (T/F)

Q29. In Process Focus Management’s emphasis is to bring discipline to their organization through definition and compliance to processes (T/F)

Q30. The emphasis at Team Focus level is moving from committees directed and controlled by management to teams empowered to take action on their own. (T/F)

Q31. In World-Class Focus Management practices include benchmarking and advanced statistical tools such as quality function deployment (T/F)

Q32. The _______is a maturity framework that describes the key elements of managing and developing the talent of an organization.

Q33. The people management process helps software organizations:
a) Characterize the maturity of their human resource practices
b) Set priorities for improving their level of talent
c) Integrate talent growth with process improvement
d) All of the above

Q34. At the _________ level, the organization typically does not provide a consistent environment for managing its people

Q35. At Process Skills level, there are no policies, procedures, and practices that commit the organization to implementing and performing consistent, established management of its people. (T/F)

Q36. The people management capability of Level 3 organizations is to focus on developing and rewarding the knowledge and skills that contribute directly to enhanced business performance. (T/F)

Q37. At________ level, the entire organization is focused on continually improving the organization’s people management capability.

Q38. Requirements are the most risk-prone part of information services. (T/F)

Q39. What are the two components associated with requirements?

Q40. At _____ level standards are established for the requirements document, which specifies the totality of requirement attributes that must be included for the requirements to be considered complete.

Q41. __________ help eliminate data redundancy and help assure consistency of use of data throughout an organization.

Q42. _________ are the characteristics surrounding the functional requirements that facilitate end user satisfaction.

Q43. At Operational level, effective technology planning occurs to address capacity, Upgrades, and selection of new technology. (T/F)

Q44. Practices at People Optimization level include business process reliability metrics and reengineering practices. (T/F)

Q45. A _____is a well-defined evolutionary plateau on the path toward becoming a mature software organization.

Q46. The role of the quality professional at Controlling level is to assure that the people in the IS function do what management wants them to do. (T/F)

Q47. In the Aligning level the quality professional doesn’t help the IS function define their core competencies. (T/F)

Q48. The role of the quality professional at Level 5 — Champion is to champion innovation and creativity in the way work is performed. (T/F)

Q49. As the control/test processes mature, emphasis switches from preventing to detecting defects. (T/F)

Q50. _________ is testing the software in an operational state.

Q51. The most common types of validation are:
a) unit testing,
b) integration testing
c) system testing.
d) All of the above

Q52. _________ is the static testing of the system in a non-operational status.

Q53. Verification is performed through a variety of processes including
a) Code analyzers
b) Walkthroughs,
c) Reviews
d) Inspections
e) All of the above

Q54. _________ involves naming defects, counting defects, recording defects in a database, analyzing them, and then managing them throughout the entire life cycle of software.

Q55. Professional work processes are a combination of the skill sets of the individual performing the work process plus the procedures and standards within the work process. (T/F)

Q56. As the maturity level increases, the cost per unit of work increases. (T/F).

Q57. As processes mature, there is a decrease in the cycle time to build software products. (T/F)

Q58. The lack of good tools, and the lack of consistent use of those tools, takes organizations to higher maturity levels. (T/F)


Answers:
Q1. Executive management
Q2. T
Q3. Quality planning
Q4. PDCA cycle
Q5. T
Q6. process management and quality control
Q7. business plan
Q8. F
Q9. T
Q10. IT vision, mission and goals
Q11. F
Q12. T
Q13. ten
Q14. Business or Activity
Q15. T
Q16. Assumptions/Potential Planning
Q17. 4. All of the above
Q18. Policies/Procedures
Q19. 4.All of the above
Q20. T
Q21. All of the above
Q22. T
Q23. process model
Q24. The Quality Assurance Institute (QAI)
Q25. Management Category, People Category, Deliverables Category, Technology Category, Quality Assurance Category and Quality Control Category
Q26. T
Q27. T
Q28. T
Q29. T
Q30. T
Q31. T
Q32. People management process
Q33. All of the above
Q34. Unpredictable
Q35. T
Q36. T
Q37. Innovate
Q38. T
Q39. The first is defining the requirements, and the second is the method used to collect and document the requirements
Q40. Business Requirements
Q41. Data relationships
Q42. Quality requirements
Q43. T
Q44. T
Q45. Maturity level
Q46. T
Q47. F
Q48. T
Q49. F
Q50. Validation
Q51. 4.All of the above
Q52. Verification
Q53. All of the above
Q54. Defect Management
Q55. T
Q56. F
Q57. T
Q58. F

QAI CSQA sample paper – 8

CSQA Subjective questions sample paper –8

(Work Processes)

Q1. Companies must constantly improve their ability to produce ____________that add value to their customer base.

Q2. Process management is also called _________ and ____________.

Q3. A process is a vehicle of communication, specifying the methods used to produce a product or service. It is the set of activities that represent the way work is to be performed. (T/F)


Q4. Processes add value to both ___________ and the ________

Q5. Processes are not needed to assure predictability of work activities so that approximately the same deliverables will be produced with the same resources each time the process is followed (T/F)

Q6. A quality management approach is driven through ___________

Q7. Workbenches are also called _________, ____________ or __________

Q8. A process can be viewed as one or more workbenches (T/F)

Q9. Depending on the maturity of the organization, process workbenches may be defined by ________________, _____________ or ____________

Q10. The workbench is comprised of two procedures___________, which correspond to the ____________ phases of the PDCA cycle.

Q11. A policy indicates ____________or outcomes of process performance, and should link to the organization’s ____________and support _____________

Q12. A standard must be ____________, _____________ and ____________

Q13. Deliverables serve as both_________ and _____________, a process

Q14. The business control model includes three general categories of control, which are____________, ____________ and ____________ .

Q15. Management must punish the people assigned to the work processes instead of resolving noncompliance to processes (T/F)

Q16. The maturing of the _______________help mature the management and work processes.

Q17. The primary change in work processes is the amount of worker skill and personal contribution to the product or service produced (T/F)

Q18. Work processes, check processes, and customer involvement, are _______________

Q19. Immature management processes are usually managed through controls such as budget and schedule, rather than relying on _____________.

Q20. The involvement of the quality function __________with the maturity level of the quality management system

Q21. The quality function may
a) Participate on committees, providing process management expertise.
b) Provide team support, such as training, coaching, and facilitation.
c) Serve as a centralized resource for measurement analysis and reporting.
d) All of the above

Q22. A process template is a pictorial representation of what is needed to comply with the process requirements. (T/F)

Q23. The PDCA cycle includes ________processes, together with the infrastructure group that uses that process

Q24. The Plan cycle is used by the _____________________.

Q25. The Act Cycle is used by the Process Development Team (T/F)

Q26. The three main objectives of process mapping are
a) to understand how a process contributes to meeting the organization’s mission and goals,
b) who is responsible for the process, and
c) how the process interfaces to produce the organization’s outcomes
d) All the above

Q27. If formal strategic planning is not regularly performed, identifying an organization’s mission and goals is not difficult (T/F)

Q28. The process management processes need not be used in the sequence in which they are described (T/F)

Q29. The Do cycle is used by the Process Development Team and includes these processes
a) Process Definition defines a process’ policies, standards, task procedures, deliverables, people and skill requirements, and tools.
b) Process Controls identifies the level and types of quality controls needed within a process, and incorporates QC procedures into the process.
c) Process Planning sets priorities for process management projects (defining or improving processes)
d) All of the above

Q30. A workbench definition contains:
a) A policy statement (why – the intent)
b) Standards (what – the rules)
c) Templates that specify document format
d) Procedures (one or more tasks) in the form of procedural statements (how)

Q31. From a worker perspective, work processes are important to:
a) Increase the probability that the deliverables produced will be the desired deliverables
b) Put workers in charge of their own destiny because they know the standards by which their work products will be evaluated
c) Enable workers to devote their creativity to improving the business instead of having to develop work processes to build products
d) Enable workers to better plan their workday because of the predictability resulting from work processes
e) All of the above

Q32. For mission and goal mapping, look for __________where goals are not supported by processes.

Answers:
Q1. Quality products
Q2. Process engineering , the standards program.
Q3. T
Q4. Management, workers,
Q5. F
Q6. Processes
Q7. Phases, steps, or tasks
Q8. T
Q9. Process management (or standards) committees, QA analysts, or work teams.
Q10. Do and Check, Do and Check
Q11. Intentions or desirable attributes, strategic goals, customer needs/requirements
Q12. Measurable, attainable, and necessary
Q13. Inputs to, and outputs from
Q14. Management Processes, Work Processes and Check Processes
Q15. F
Q16. Check processes
Q17. T
Q18. Interrelated
Q19. Work processes
Q20. Varies
Q21. D
Q22. T
Q23. Seven
Q24. Process Management Committee
Q25. T
Q26. D
Q27. F
Q28. F
Q29. A, B
Q30. A, B, D
Q31. E

QAI CSQA sample paper – 7

CSQA Subjective questions sample paper –7

(Quality Control Practices)

Q1. Quality control practices should occur only during product construction at the end of development. True / False

Q2. During development, the quality control process is frequently called _____________ and at the conclusion of development, it is called _____________

Q3. The testers’ workbench is the process used to verify and validate the system structurally and functionally. True / False


Q4. Unit Testing
a. Simulate operation of the entire system and confirm that it runs correctly.
b. Ensures that a single program, module, or unit of code function as designed.
c. Real-world test is the most important to the business, and it cannot be conducted in isolation
d. Conducted on tasks that involve more than one application or database, or on related programs, modules, or units of code, to validate that multiple parts of the system interact according to the system design

Q5. Integration Testing
a. Simulate operation of the entire system and confirm that it runs correctly.
b. Ensures that a single program, module, or unit of code function as designed.
c. Real-world test is the most important to the business, and it cannot be conducted in isolation
d. Conducted on tasks that involve more than one application or database, or on related programs, modules, or units of code, to validate that multiple parts of the system interact according to the system design

Q6. System Testing
a. Simulate operation of the entire system and confirm that it runs correctly.
b. Ensures that a single program, module, or unit of code function as designed.
c. Real-world test is the most important to the business, and it cannot be conducted in isolation
d. Conducted on tasks that involve more than one application or database, or on related programs, modules, or units of code, to validate that multiple parts of the system interact according to the system design

Q7. User Acceptance Testing
a. Simulate operation of the entire system and confirm that it runs correctly.
b. Ensures that a single program, module, or unit of code function as designed.
c. Real-world test is the most important to the business, and it cannot be conducted in isolation
d. Conducted on tasks that involve more than one application or database, or on related programs, modules, or units of code, to validate that multiple parts of the system interact according to the system design

Q8. An independent test team is usually comprised of a Test Manager or team leader, Testers, and additional Testers. True / False

Q9. Static testing occurs throughout the development life cycle. True / False

Q10. Verification answers the question, “Did we build the system right?” while validation addresses “Did we build the right system?” True / False

Q11. Verification requires several types of reviews, including requirements reviews, design reviews, code walkthroughs, code inspections, and test reviews. True / False

Q12. V testing is also called as
a. U testing
b. Life cycle testing
c. Black box testing
d. Dynamic testing

Q13. A test objective (goal) is a statement of what the test team or tester is expected to accomplish during a specific testing activity. True / False

Q14. Test objectives, are usually defined during requirements analysis. True / False

Q15. The main goal is to identify defects within the stage or phase of the project where they originate, rather than in later test stages; this is referred to as “__________________”
a. Defect identification
b. Defect prevention
c. Stage Containment
d. Defect leakage

Q16. Since defects identified in the review process are found earlier in the life cycle, they are more expensive to correct. True / False

Q17. Reviews are an efficient method of educating a large number of people on a specific product or project in a relatively short period of time. True / False

Q18. Phase-end reviews are also called Decision-Point or Gate reviews. True / False

Q19. Regardless of the format, three rules apply to all reviews:
a. The product is reviewed, not the producer
b. Defects and issues are identified, not corrected during the session
c. All members of the review team are responsible for the results of the review
d. All the above

Q20. Phase-end reviews look at the product for the main purpose of determining whether to continue with planned activities. True / False

Q21. The checkpoint reviews are focused on critical success factors while phase-end reviews are general. True / False

Q22. Post-implementation reviews are also known as
a. Post mortems
b. User acceptance reviews
c. Customer reviews
d. None of the above

Q23. Tactical risks are divided into three categories:
a. Structural Risk, Technical Risk, Size risk
b. Intangible risk, Technical Risk, Size risk
c. Size risk, Magnitude Risk, Functional risk
d. None of the above

Q24. ________________ are informal, semi-structured reviews of the program source code against specifications and standards to find defects and verify coding techniques.
a. Code Walkthroughs
b. Code Inspection
c. Peer Review
d. Coding standards review

Q25. Validation ensures that the system operates according to plan by executing the system functions through a series of tests that can be observed and evaluated for compliance with expected results. True / False

Q26. Equivalence partitioning, Boundary analysis are part of
a. White box testing
b. Black box testing
c. Regression testing
d. All the above

Q27. Thread testing and incremental testing are usually used together. True / False

Q28. _____________ technique assures that the change will not cause adverse effects on parts of the application or system that were not supposed to change.
a. White box testing
b. Black box testing
c. Regression testing
d. All the above

Q29. The test manager’s objective is to maximize the benefits of the regression test while minimizing the time and effort required for executing the test. True / False

Q30. Different types of regression testing are Unit, Regional and Full. True / False

Q31. The primary objective of configuration management (or change control) is to get the right change installed at the right time. True / False

Q32. A defect is a variance from expectations. True / False

Q33. Can defects be used for improving process? (Yes/No)

Answers:
Q1. False
Q2. verification & validation
Q3. True
Q4. b
Q5. d
Q6. a
Q7. c
Q8. True
Q9. True
Q10. False
Q11. True
Q12. b
Q13. True
Q14. True
Q15. c
Q16. False
Q17. True
Q18. True
Q19. d
Q20. True
Q21. True
Q22. a
Q23. a
Q24. a
Q25. True
Q26. b
Q27. True
Q28. c
Q29. True
Q30. True
Q31. True
Q32. True
Q33. Yes

QAI CSQA sample paper – 6

CSQA Subjective questions sample paper –6

 (Metrics and Measurement)

Q1. Measurement data is most reliable when it is generated exclusively for measuring product or service quality. True / False

Q2. Measurement can be used to gauge the status, effectiveness and efficiency of processes, customer satisfaction, product quality, and as a tool for management to use in their decision-making processes. True / False

Q3. A _____________ is a single quantitative attribute of an entity.

Q4. A metric is a ____________ unit of measurement that cannot be directly observed, but is created by combining or relating two or more measures.

Q5. A metric normalizes data so that comparison is possible. True / False

Q6. __________ measurement uses hard data that can be obtained by counting, stacking, weighing, timing.

Q7. An objective measurement should result in ————- values for a given measure, when measured by two or more qualified observers.
a) Identical
b) Different
c) Sometimes same
d) Not sure

Q8. Subjective data is normally observed or perceived. It is a person’s perception of a product or activity, and includes personal attitudes, feelings and opinions, such as how easy a system is to use, or the skill level needed to execute the system. True / False

Q9. Objective measurement is more reliable than subjective measurement, but as a general rule, subjective measurement is considered more important. True / False

Q10. The more difficult something is to measure, the less valuable it is. True / False

Q11. The four types of measured data are
a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
d) Ratio
e) All the above

Q12. Nominal data can be subjected to arithmetic operations of any type, and the values cannot be ranked in any “natural order.” True / False

Q13. In ordinal data, the data can be ranked, but differences or ratios between values are not meaningful. True / False

Q14. __________ data has no absolute zero, and ratios of values are not necessarily meaningful.
a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
d) Ratio
e) All the above

Q15. In Ratio type data, the data has an absolute zero and meaningful ratios can be calculated. True / False

Q16. The measures of central tendency are the mean, medium, and mode. True / False

Q17. Ideally models should be developed that are capable of predicting process or product parameters, not just describing them. This is facilitated by measures and resulting metrics that are:
a) Simple and precisely definable, so it is clear how they can be evaluated
b) Objective
c) Easily obtainable at reasonable cost
d) Valid, measuring what they are intended to measure
e) Robust,
f) All the above

Q18. Match the pairs
A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. Calibration
1. Robustness
2. Consistency if measurement
3. modification of a measurement
4. degree to which a measure actually measures what it was intended to measure.

Q19. Measurement dashboards are used to monitor progress and initiate change. True / False
Q20. Using dashboards is known as “ _______________”
a) Management by Act
b) Management by time
c) One minute Manger
d) Management by fact

Q21. Statistical process control is used to ensure that the process behaves in a ___________ manner.

Q22. For a software product, the requirements, the complexity of the software design, the size of the final program’s source or object code, or the number of pages of documentation produced for the installed system can be measured. True / False

Q23. The cyclomatic complexity of such a graph can be computed by a simple formula from graph theory, as v(G)=e-n+2, where e is the number of edges, and n is the number of nodes in the graph. True / False

Q24. A _________ is defined as a necessary crossing of directional lines in the graph.
a) Cross
b) Node
c) Knot
d) All the above

Q25. Reliability is defined as the probability of a software failure, or the rate at which software errors will occur. True / False

Q26. Customer perception of product quality is measured using
a) Customer surveys
b) Service level agreements
c) Loyalty
d) Recommendations to others
e) All the above

Q27. _____________ are those that can be controlled by improving the work processes.
a) Common causes
b) Special causes
c) Generic Causes
d) Controllable causes

Q28. Special causes are those that must be controlled outside the process; typically they need to be dealt with individually. True / False

Q29. A measurement program is defined as the entire set of activities that occur around ___________ data.

Q30. Mature organizations typically measure for budget, schedule, and project status, and management relies on project teams to determine when requirements are done. True / False

Q31. People in Quality group should help develop the measure. True / False

Q32. When results are not achieved, a quality management philosophy tells the organization to look at how the system (i.e., its processes) can be improved rather than reacting, making emotional decisions, and blaming people. True / False

Q33. The management by fact process contains two components:
1. Meeting desired results.
2. Managing the processes to drive the results.
True / False

Q34. A process is defined as ____________ when its mean and standard deviation remain constant over time.
a) Unstable
b) Unreliable
c) Stable
d) Reliable
e) Controllable

Q35. A ___________ process is predictable,
a) Unstable
b) Unreliable
c) Stable
d) Reliable
e) Controllable

Q36. If special causes of variation exist, the process may be unpredictable, and therefore stable. True / False

Q37. A state of statistical control is established when all special causes of variation have been eliminated True / False

Q38. Classify into common causes and Special causes
No available disk space, Citywide power returns or business returns to normal operations after 3 days, Invalid data, Errors in operating or job, Control instructions, The operator strike ends

Q39. Because special causes are `sporadic contributors,’ due to some specific circumstances, the `process’ or `system’ variability is defined without them.” True / False

Q40. Improvements to address the ———- causes of variation usually require process or system changes.
a) Common causes
b) Special causes
c) Generic Causes
d) Controllable causes

Q41. Reducing variation due to common causes is process improvement and the real essence of continuous process improvement. True / False

Q42. Which is the most capable process and why?

Q43. Risk management involves the activities of defining, measuring, prioritizing, and managing risk in order to eliminate or minimize any potential negative effect associated with risk. True / False

Q44. Risk is the possibility that an unfavorable event will occur. True / False

Q45. The probability of risk occurring at the beginning of the project is very low (due to the unknowns), whereas at the end of the project the probability is very high. True / False

Q46. Risk management is the process used to identify, analyze, and respond to a risk. True / False

Q47. Risk management consists of
a) Risk Identification
b) Risk Quantification
c) Risk Response Development
d) Risk Response Control
e) All the above

Q48. Match the pair
1. Risk Identification
2. Risk Analysis
3. Risk Prioritization
4. Risk Response Planning
5. Risk Resolution
6. Risk Monitoring
a. The process that evaluates the action taken, documents the risk results and repeats the cycle of identification, quantification and response.
b. The process that answers the question “What should be done about the risk?”
c. The process that answers the question “Which risks do we care about?”
d. The process that answers the question “What are the risks?”
e. The process that answers the question “How are the risks prioritized?”
f. The process that executes the plan that was developed in the prior step.

Q49. Expected value =
a) Value * Cost
b) Probability * Impact
c) Probability * value
d) Cost * impact

Q50. Typical responses for risk include: procurement, contingency planning, alternative strategies, and insurance. True / False


Answers:
Q1. False
Q2. True
Q3. Measure
Q4. Derived
Q5. True
Q6. Objective
Q7. a)Identical
Q8. True
Q9. True
Q10. False
Q11. All of the above
Q12. False
Q13. True
Q14. C
Q15. True
Q16. True
Q17. All the above
Q18. A-2, B-4, C-3
Q19. True
Q20. D
Q21. Consistent
Q22. True
Q23. True
Q24. C
Q25. True
Q26. E
Q27. A
Q28. True
Q29. quantitative
Q30. False
Q31. False
Q32. True
Q33. True
Q34. C
Q35. C
Q36. False
Q37. True
Q38. Special causes: the operator strike ends, citywide power returns or business returns to normal operations after an
Common causes: invalid data, no available disk space, and errors in operating or job
control instructions.
Q39. True
Q40. A
Q41. True
Q42. C
Q43. True
Q44. True
Q45. False
Q46. True
Q47. E
Q48. Risk Identification – this process answers the question “What are the risks?”
Risk Analysis – this process answers the question “Which risks do we care about?”
Risk Prioritization – this process answers the question “How are the risks prioritized?”
Risk Response Planning – this process answers the question “What should be done
about the risk?”
Risk Resolution – this process executes the plan that was developed in the prior step.
Risk Monitoring – this process evaluates the action taken, documents the risk results
and repeats the cycle of identification, quantification and response
Q49. B. Probability * Impact
Q50. True

QAI CSQA sample paper – 5

CSQA Subjective questions sample paper –5

(Internal Control and Security)

Q1. Internal auditors should be ___________ of the activities they audit.

Q2. Establishing and maintaining the Internal Control system is the responsibility of the
a) Internal Audit function
b) CEO and key managers
c) Workers
d) QA group

Q3. Risk = ____________ x ______________
a) Loss x impact
b) Frequency x delay
c) Frequency x occurrence
d) Delay x occurrence


Q4. Organizational policies form a part of ____________ controls.

Q5. Controls are a means to __________ business risks.

Q6. What are the two systems involved in every business application.

Q7. What are the three different categories on internal control?

Q8. No control should cost more than the potential error it is established to prevent, detect and correct. ( T / F )

Q9. Amongst all controls, ___________ controls are the lowest in cost and ___________ controls are the most expensive to implement.
a) detective, preventive
b) preventive, corrective
c) corrective, detective
d) preventive, detective

Q10. Prior to installing any control, some _______________ analysis should be made.

Q11. In the COSO Internal Control framework, control designers have to go through a _______________ process before setting the control objectives.

Q12. Quality Assurance should focus on the security management controls. ( T / F )

Q13. ____________ is a weakness in an information system.

Q14. Information security baseline information should be collected by an _____________ assessment team.

Q15. Ownership and responsibility of the computer security belong to ______________ in the organization.
a) senior management
b) security officer
c) all employees
d) QA group

Q16. Security mechanisms (defenses) need to be ___________ so that compromise of a single security mechanism is insufficient to compromise a host or network.

Q17. Routines in a computer system that check the validity of input data are referred to as:
a. Environmental control
b. SOX control
c. Preventive control
d. Detective control
e. Corrective control

Q18. ___________ directly examine internal controls and recommend improvements.

Q19. There are two components of controls. The first is _________ and the second is the controls within an individual business application.

Q20. ____________ are the means by which management uses to manage the organization.

Q21. The objectives of transaction processing controls are to __________, _________ or ___________ incorrect processing.

Q22. __________ control type of control is most desirable

Q23. __________ controls alert individuals involved in a process so that they are aware of a problem.

Q24. __________ controls should bring potential problems to the attention of individuals so that action can be taken.

Q25. __________ controls will not prevent problems from occurring, but rather will point out a problem.

Q26. __________ controls assist individuals in the investigation and correction of causes of exposures that have been detected.

Q27. __________ action is often a difficult and time consuming process.

Q28. In information systems there is a __________ associated with each control.

Q29. The system of internal control is designed to minimize _________

Q30. Security can be divided into two parts. First is the ____________controls, and second is ___________controls.

Q31. ____________ should focus on the security management controls.

Q32. ____________is a weakness in an information system.

Answers:
Q1. Independent
Q2. CEO and key managers
Q3. c
Q4. Environmental
Q5. Minimize
Q6. Environmental and Transaction Processing controls
Q7. Preventive, detective, corrective
Q8. True
Q9. Preventive, corrective
Q10. cost benefit
Q11. Risk assessment
Q12. True
Q13. Vulnerability
Q14. Independent
Q15. All Employees
Q16. Layered
Q17. d
Q18. Internal Auditors
Q19. Environmental
Q20. Environmental
Q21. Prevent, detect or correct
Q22. Preventive
Q23. Detective
Q24. Detective
Q25. Detective
Q26. corrective
Q27. corrective
Q28. cost
Q29. risk
Q30. Security Management and Security technical
Q31. Quality Assurance
Q32. Vulnerability

QAI CSQA sample paper – 4

CSQA Subjective questions sample paper –4

(Outsourcing, COTS and Contracting Quality )

Q1. Organization can assign responsibility for quality to outside organization through contracting services (T/F)

Q2. Over 50 % of the software developed by offshore organization fails to meet the expectation of the contractor (T/F)

Q3. Unless the contract specifies the operational standards and documentation standards the delivered product may be more complex to use than desired by the contractor (T/F)

Q4. One of the offshore difference is
a) Gender difference
b) Class difference
c) Language Difference
d) None of the above

Q5. ___________ ______________ ___________ are those criteria or factors that must be present in the acquired software for it to be successful.

Q6. Match the following
1. Maintainability
2. Expandability
3. Ease of use
4. Security
a) The software is understandable and usable by the average person
b) The system has adequate safeguards to protect the data against the damage
c) The contractor plans to add additional features in the future
d) The contractor will provide support/assistance to help utilize the package in the event of problem

Q7. ___________________ is defined in data processing jargon as “interoperability”.
Q8. It is not important to check software products compatibility with other software packages and with available data (T/F)

Q9. Selecting a COTS software is _______ step process
a) 5
b) 8
c) 7
d) 9

Q10. List the 5 aspects of computer software to be observed during demonstration

Q11. The objective of ____________ _________ _____ is to determine whether your employees can use the software

Q12. The objective of acceptance testing is to meet the ___________ and ___________ needs of the users of the software

Q13. State the activities of acquisition life cycle.

Q14. It is important that all the requirements given to contractor are __________________

Q15. List 5 types of desired specifications to be studied during feasibility study

Q16. Quality professional should ensure that contractor sends _______________ __________ regularly.

Q17. The right of customer to move the application system from location to location is included in which contractual section
a) Warranty
b) Customer support
c) Installation
d) Transportability

Q18. The state under which the rule of the contract are binding is included under which contractual section
a) Life of Contract
b) Foreign attachments
c) Governing law
d) Penalties

Q19. A unfair may not achieve desired objectives (T/F)

Q20. The right of the contractor to look at the records of the customer is stated in which contractual section
a) Contractor employee rights
b) Contractor support
c) Updates
d) contractor inspection

Q21. What activities occur once the software is ready for delivery

Q22. The ________________ has responsibility of test the application to determine that it meets contractual requirements.
a) SQA
b) Internal auditor
c) Contractor
d) User

Q23. The ______________ should prepare sufficient test data so that deliverables can be adequately tested during acceptance testing.
a) Contractor
b) User
c) Customer
d) SQA

Q24. Contracts should be reviewed
a) At start
b) Project completion
c) Periodically
d) payment time
 
Q25. List the three items important in knowledge transfer.

Q26. Match the following
1. Competency of service
2. Cost of Service
3. Adequacy of control
4. Cost of operations
5.Skilled personnel
6.Error diagnosis
a) Control provided should be sufficient to assure that data processed by application is accurate, complete and authorized
b) The customer personnel should be adequately trained in the operation of the application
c) The Services to be provided during the life of contract should be specified in terms of cost
d) Service personnel should be sufficiently skilled to perform the tasks for which they are assigned.
e) The responsibility to diagnose problem should be documented
f) Cost associated with usage is measurable

Q27. Cost included in contract should include provisions on _____________ ______.


Answer:

Q1. F
Q2. T
Q3. T
Q4. C
Q5. Critical Success Factors
Q6. 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – b
Q7. Systems compatibility
Q8. F
Q9. 7
Q10. Understandability, Clarity of communication, Ease of use of Instruction Manual, Functionality of software, knowledge to execute, effectiveness of help routines, evaluate program compatibility, Data compatibility. Smell test
Q11. Evaluate people fit
Q12. Functional, structural
Q13. Selecting an outside organization, contract negotiation, Operations and Maintenance
Q14. testable
Q15. Inputs required by System, Required processing, output produced by system, operational response time, information to be retained, Types of documentation, Volume of data processed, unique hardware characteristics
Q16. Status reports
Q17. d) Transportability
Q18. c) Governing Law
Q19. T
Q20. d
Q21. Acceptance testing, Operation and maintenance contract and contractual relations
Q22. Contractor
Q23. c
Q24. c
Q25. Training program for contracted staff, Being advised of defects uncovered by other organizations using the software, Ability to contact a contractor help desk to resolve problems/get additional information
Q26. 1-d, 2- c, 3-a, 4-c, 5-b, 6-e
Q27. Ongoing costs.

QAI CSQA sample paper – 3

CSQA Subjective questions sample paper –3

Q1. Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award (MBNQA) defines one of the roles of a leader as establishing a vision. You know that a vision must be expressed in terms external to the organization, and define the organization ideally would like to accomplish. You have asked your IT director to develop a vision for the function. He tells you that the IT-function already has a mission, and his vision is to accomplish that mission. How do you explain to your director the difference between a vision and a mission?

Q2. ‘Zero defects’ Do you agree? Explain with examples and reasons.

Q3. Your operational department encounters production defect at the rate of 3 defects pre 1000 lines of code. During a vendor meet you come across another company ABC that is of the same size of yours and in the same industry. This company’s production defect is 2 defects per 1000 lines of code. Can you conclude that the ABC operation department is better that yours? Can you use this for benchmarking?

Q4. Dr. Deming’s 11th principle states no numerical goals. To abide the law your company has to pay tax and payroll charges every year. Does this contradict 11th principle? Explain it.

Q5. You are appointed QA Manager and your Director / Management wants you to do the testing and QC review. How would you convince your IT Director / Management that this is not your responsibility as a QA Manager.

Q6. You are a QA manager in the Software Quality Assurance team that has prescribed a set of processes and procedures to be followed by the project team whenever a modified code / patch / application is released to the client.
Project Manager informs you that a release is required urgently by an important client. He says, all the steps in the procedure prescribed have been followed but due to time constraints each step is covered only to the extent of 35-40%. And, the client needs the release in the next 2 hours itself.
What will be your decision. Allow or not to allow the release? Explain it with proper reason.

QAI CSQA sample paper – 2

CSQA Subjective questions sample paper –2

Q 1. In order to bring about improvement in the testing process and help your team members come up with guidelines on
a) How to stop testing?
b) When to stop Testing?
c) How to test with constraint on resources?

Q 2. You are the project leader for the team and the team members are fresh from colleges. During the reviews and testing they are finding a lot defects but they are not reporting all of them for the fear that would reflect in there performance appraisals. How do you handle this type of situations and improve the quality?

Q3. You as a QC person, what type of test end report will you prepare for the PL of the concerned project? What will you report and why?

Q4. You are the new IS Manager of an investment company. Your team needs to develop an online trading system within 2 months with no increase in team size. An online (buy / sell) transaction has to be completed within 2 seconds and the online search should not take more than 5 seconds. How should you approach this to get the software developed with the best quality and within schedule?

Q5. A new team member has joined the project and he has to prepare Unit Test plan for the module. He says that he would prepare UT after completing the code development. As the Project Leader would you agree with this? Explain.
Q6. You are passing by the cubicle of Broadcast project manager, Mr. Paul and you overhead him talking to him on the phone.

Mr. Paul was talking to his client “OK, Initially we planned about 25% efforts to be spent in System Testing but As you know we slipped the Design by 5% so I promise you I would adjust this efforts in System Test by reducing the System Test efforts- instead of 25% – we will now plan for 20%.By doing so I am still hopeful to meet delivery deadlines.
You guessed that Mr. Paul is negotiating the System Test efforts. What would be your action points to Convince Mr. Paul.

Q7. Paul had just finished meeting System Testing people. He seems to be upset. He held a meeting to find out the status of Testing and basically wanted to know how many Faults were Fixed in the Previous build 3.0. The Test Team Leader was away, so he could get hold of 4 testers.
- Two Testers said. We have tested the build 3.0 and there are no showstopper Faults.
- The Other Tester said – we Tested 3.0 Thoroughly and we could find some problems.
Apparently, Paul got confused and wanted to know what really is happening. He asked the Test Team leader who joined late in the meeting. He asked him the same question. The Test Team leader said: we have tested the Build 3.0 and there were many show stopper issues.
Paul could not make anything and just came out of the meeting. Paul feels that there should be some system to get the correct status of Testing.
What kind of approach you will take to eliminate these kind of problems?

QAI CSQA sample paper – 1

CSQA Subjective questions sample paper – 1

1. A help desk in a network control organization received the following problems during a day and the network administrator resolved them as follows:

• Terminal Keyboard locked
• Terminal 123x is hung
• Terminal shows no cursor on the screen
• Unable to start a session
• Unable to print from e-mail
• Terminal 324x can’t access menu

You have been assigned to lead a quality improvement team to improve the help desk process. Briefly describe the steps in your quality improvement process, then briefly execute theses steps to illustrate the execution of each step. As you execute your quality improvement process steps, perform any analysis needed and indicate any conclusion/ recommendations that result from your analysis.
At a minimum, you should define and quantify the problem(s), suggest a cause and a solution to the problem needed.

Q2. Where do you think the usual mistakes in a software development cycle arise from?

Q3. What are the 4 phases of team building? How will you solve the problems those will appear in the team building process? 

Q4. The managers are of the opinion that the team shall not perform reviews on the products they produce, but have external persons doing it to have additional checks on their team’s work. Also, this would help ease project pressure. How would you react and why?

Q5. Identify the internal customers and their relevant work product(s) in each stage of SDLC other than the final/end user.

Q6. A potential customer of your organization requires software that can be provided only with new tools/technology, not currently available in your organization. Your management has decided to accept the contract. How should the project be planned for successful completion?

Q7. Give Suitable metrics for

• Usability
• Defects
• Maintainability
• Customer Satisfaction
• Software Reliability
• Completeness of testing
• Process Quality
• Product Quality
• Management’s Commitment to Quality
• Training
• Scalability Portability

QTP HP-M016 Certification Paper - 4

HP QTP Certification HP-M016 Practice Exam Questions -4

Q1. QuickTest has ..... built-in toolbars.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8

Q2. The ......... toolbar contains buttons for recording and runningyour test.
A) Standard
B) Tools
C) Automation
D) Edit

Q3. Shortcut Key for opening a new Function Library is:
A) Shift+Alt+N
B) Ctrl+Alt+N
C) Shift+N
D) CRTL+N

Q4. Shortcut Key for Closing all open Function Libraries in one go.
A) Ctrl+Alt+C
B) Shift+A+C
C)Shift+N
D) None of these

Q5. shortcut Key for Commenting out the current row, or selected rows
A) Shift+M
B) Ctrl+C
C) Ctrl+M
D) Shift+C

Q6. You can manage the test actions and the test or function librarysteps using the ... menu commands
A) File
B) Edit
C) Automation
D) Tools

Q7. To expand all the steps in the keyword view which option you woulduse from the View menu.
A) Expand
B) Expand All
C) Expand Items
D) Expand Rows

Q8. What is the shortcut key to open a Step Generator.
A) F2
B) F5
C) F6
D) F7

Q9. Function Definition Generator in found in which menu option.
A) File
B) Tools
C) Insert
D) View

Q10. The shortcut keys for Record, Stop and Run respectively are
A) F3, F4, F5
B) F4, F3, F5
C) F4, F5, F3
D) F3, F5, F4

Q11. What is the shortcut key for opening an Object Repository.
A) Alt+R
B) Shift+R
C) Ctrl+R
D) Shift+O+R

Q12. Shortcut key to Insert/Remove a breakpoint is
A) F9
B) F8
C) Ctrl+b
D) Shift+b

Q13. .........runs only the current line of the script. If the currentline calls a method, the method is displayed in the view but is notperformed.
A) Step Over
B) Step Out
C) Step Into
D) Step Till

Q14. .........runs only the current line of the script. When the currentline calls a method, the method is performed in its entirety, but is notdisplayed in the view.
A) Step Over
B) Step Out
C) Step Into
D) Step Till

Q15. What is the shortcut key to Clear all Breakpoints
A) Ctrl+Shift+F9
B) Shift+Ctrl+F9
C) Alt+Shift+F9
D) Alt+Ctrl+F9

Q16. Object Spy can be found in ........menu.
A) Tool
B) Tools
C) Task
D) Tasks

Q17. ............ displays the open documents side-by-side.
A) Tile Vertically
B) Tile Horizontally
C) Cascade
D) Tile Cascade

Q18. For opening the QuickTest Professional Help we can use.......
A) F3
B) F5
C) F1
D) F2

Q19. If QTP cannot find any object that matches the description, or if itfinds more than one object that matches, QuickTest may usethe............mechanism to identify the object.
A) Ordinal Identifier
B) Index Identifier
C) Smart Identification
D) Assistive Identification

Q20. You can configure the ........, ............ and ............properties that QuickTest uses to record descriptions of the objects inyour application
A) mandatory, assistive, and ordinal identifier
B) mandatory, required, and ordinal identifier
C) smart, assistive, and ordinal identifier
D) Index, assistive, and ordinal identifier

Q21. The .......... property set for each test object is created andmaintained by QuickTest.
A) Run-Time Object
B) Test Object
C) Smart Identification Object
D) Assistive Object

Q22. You can access and perform ......... methods using the Object property.
A) Run-Time Object
B) Test Object
C) Smart Identification Object
D) Assistive Object

Q23. You can view or modify the test object property values that arestored with your test in the .........
A) Information Pane
B) Data Table
C) Information Pane & Data Table Both
D) Object Properties & Object Repository dialog box.

Q24. You can retrieve or modify property values of the test object duringthe run session by adding ..........statements in the Keyword View orExpert View.
A) GetROProperty & SetROProperty
B) GetTOProperty & SetTOProperty
C) GetTOProperty & SetROProperty
D) GetROProperty & SetTOProperty

Q25. If the available test object methods or properties for an object donot provide the functionality you need, you can access ..............of any run-time object using the Object property.
A) The internal methods and properties
B) The mandatory methods and properties
C) The selective methods and properties
D) The assertive methods and properties

Answer:

1	D
2	C
3	A
4	D
5	C
6	B
7	B
8	D
9	C
10	A
11	C
12	A
13	C
14	A
15	A
16	B
17	A
18	C
19	C
20	A
21	B
22	A
23	D
24	B
25	A

QTP HP-M016 Certification Paper - 3

HP QTP Certification HP-M016 Practice Exam Questions -3

Q1. 'Browser navigation timeout' is in which tab of Test Settings (File->Settings) window.
A) Properties
B) Resources
C) Web
D) Web Settings

Q2. How many tabs are there in Test Settings (File->Settings) window
A) 7
B) 6
C) 5
D) 8

Q3. Identify the tabs in the Test Settings (File->Settings) window
A) Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
B) Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, WebSettings,Recovery
C) Properties, Run Options, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web,Recovery
D) Properties, Run, Resources, Input Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery

Q4. 'Generate Script' is in which tab of Test Settings (File->Settings)window
A) Properties
B) Web
C) Resources
D) Recovery

Q5. The following are the four main columns in the Keyword view
A) Item, Operation, Value, Comments
B) Item, Operation, Value, Documentation
C) Item, Operation, Property, Documentation
D) Number, Operation, Value, Documentation

Q6. For each object and method in an Expert View statement, acorresponding row exists in the Keyword View.
A) True
B) False
C) There is a problem with the statement.
D) None of above

Q7. You can work on one or several function libraries at the same time.
A) True
B) False

Q8. You can insert additional steps on the test objects captured in the Active screen after the recording session.
A) True
B) False

Q9. The Active Screen enables you to parameterize object values andinsert checkpoints
A) True
B) False

Q10. A QTP user can increase or decrease the active screen informationsaved with the test.
A) True
B) False

Q11. The Information pane provides a list of............. in the test:
A) Semantic errors
B) Syntax errors
C) Common errors
D) Logic errors

Q12. When we switch from Expert view to the Keyword view, QTPautomatically checks for syntax errors in the test and shows them in theinformation pane.
A) True
B) False

Q13. If the information pane is not open, QTP automatically opens it incase a syntax error is detected.
A) True
B) False

Q14. ..................... provides a list of the resources that arespecified in your test but cannot be found.
A) Missing pane
B) Missing Resources pane
C) Resources pane
D) Missing Items pane

Q15. Whenever you open a test or a function library, QTP automaticallychecks for the availability of specified resources.
A) True
B) False

Q16. The Data Table does not assists you in parameterizing your test.
A) True
B) False

Q17. Tabs in the Debug Viewer pane are:
A) Watch, Variables, Debug
B) Watch, Data, Command
C) Watch, Variables, Command
D) View, Variables, Command

Q18. ............... tab enables you to view the current value of anyvariable or VBScript expression.
A) Watch
B) VIew
C) Locate
D) Current

Q19. The .... tab displays the current value of all variables that havebeen recognized up to the last step performed in the run session.
A) View
B)Variables
C) Locate
D) Current

Q20. The .........tab enables you to run a line of script to set ormodify the current value of a variable or VBScript object in your testor function library.
A) View
B) Variables
C) Command
D) Current

Q21. Panes in QTP can have one of the following states—docked or floating.
A) True
B) False

Q22. Which of the following statement is True:
A) QuickTest enables you to open and work on one test at a time
B) QuickTest enables you to open and work on two tests at a time
C) QuickTest enables you to open and work on predefined number of testsat a time
D) QuickTest enables you to open and work on nine test at a time

Q23. Which of the following statement is True:
A) You can open and work on two function libraries simultaneously
B) You can open and work on multiple function libraries simultaneously
C) You can open and work on nine function libraries simultaneously
D) You can open and work on one function library at a time

Q24. You can open any function library, regardless of whether it isassociated with the currently open test.
A) True
B) False

Q25. You can work with multiple documents (test, component, orapplication area, function libraries) using the...... dialog box
A) Panes
B) Display
C) Show
D) Windows

Answers:
 

1	C
2	A
3	A
4	A
5	B
6	A
7	A
8	A
9	A
10	A
11	B
12	A
13	A
14	B
15	A
16	B
17	C
18	A
19	B
20	C
21	A
22	A
23	B
24	A
25	D

QTP HP-M016 Certification Paper - 2

HP QTP Certification HP-M016 Practice Exam Questions -2

Q1. The Command used to insert the transactions in test is:
A. StartTransaction(Name), EndTransaction(Name)
B. Services.StartTransaction "Name", Services.EndTransaction "Name"
C. StartTransaction.services "Name, EndTransaction.services "Name"

Q2. A step in which one or more values are captured at a specific point in your test and stored for the duration of the run session is:
A. Output Value
B. Checkpoints
C. Active Screen

Q3. QTP can detects an application crash and activate a defined recovery scenario to continue the run session.
A. True
B. false

Q4. In Batch Test process, the test list are saved in file format as:
A. *.mtb
B. *.mts
C. *.mbt
D. *.mtr

Q5. The command used to invoke other application from QTP:
A. InvokeApplication
B. SystemUtil.Run
C. Run
D. Both b & c
E. Both a & b

Q6. The command used to retrieve data from excel sheet is
A. Set ab = Connection("srcfilepath ") , Set ws = ab.getdata(sheetid)
B. Set ab = CreateObject("srcfilepath ") , Set ws = ab.getsheet(sheetid)
C. Set ab = GetObject("srcfilepath") , Set ws = ab.worksheets(sheetid)

Q7. The method that explicitly activates the recovery scenario mechanism is:
A. recovery.activate
B. enable
C. recovery.enable
D. activate

Q8. The method used for sending information to the test results is:
A. Reporter.log()
B. Reporter.reportevent()
C. Reporter.msgbox()
D. Reporter.report()

Q9. To terminate an application that is not responding we use:
A. SystemUtil.terminate
B. SystemUtil.Stop
C. SystemUtil.CloseProcessByName

Q10. The recovery mechanism does not handle triggers that occur in the last step of a test:
A. false
B. True

Q11. We can add Test object methods, function calls into the Test using:
A. Function generator
B. Step generator
C. Object repository

Q12. The method that adds to the test while implementing synchronization is:
A. Synchronize
B. Wait
C. WaitProperty
D. Pause

Q13. The mechanism used to identify objects during run session is:
A. Recovery scenario
B. Smart identification
C. Handling object

Q14. Post-recovery test run options specifies:
A. how to continue the run session after QTP identify the event
B. errors while running
C. recovery scenario during a run session

Q15. The action that can be called multiple times by the test as well as by other tests is called:
A. non-reusable action
B. Reusable action
C. External action

Q16. The command used to connect with Database is:
A. Createobject(connectivity name)
B. dbconnect(connectivity name)
C. open(connectivity name)
D. None of the above

Q17. The method used to retrieve the folders is:
A. FileSystemObject.Getfolder()
B. FileSystemObject.selectfolder()
C. FileSystemObject.retrievefolder()

Q18. The method used to compare 2 XML files is:
A1. XMLfile1.compare(XMLfile2)
B. XMLcompare(file1,file2)
C. compare(XMLfile1,XMLfile2)

Q19. The QTP script files are stored in the extension of:
A. *.mts
B. *.usr
C. *.mtr
D. *.vbs

Q20. The method used to register the user-defined function with test object is:
A. setFunc()
B. RegisterUserFunc()
C. RegisterFunc()

Q21. The method used to open the specified URL in a browser is:
A. openURL()
B. navigateURL()
C. navigate()

Q22. The 3 Parameter types available in data driver is:
A. DataTable,Environment,Random number
B. DataTable,random number,unique
C. environment,string,numeric

Q23. The method added to the test while parameterizing is:
A. get Data (variable, dtGlobalSheet)
B. get DataTable(variable, dtGlobalSheet)
C. Set Data(variable, dtGlobalSheet)
D. Set DataTable(variable, dtGlobalSheet)

Q24. The length of the array can be get by the method:
A. length(array)
B. ubound(array)
C. count(array)

Q25. The method used to get the count value of list box or combo box is:
A. GetItemsCount
B. GetCount
C. GetItemCount

Q26. To retrieve the current the objects in your application during the run session:
A. GetVisibleText
B. GetROProperty
C. SetROProperty
D. GetTOProperty

Q27. The list of test objects and their properties and values are stored in the:
A. Object Repository
B. Object Identification

Q28. The method used to continue the test execution after getting run-time error is:
1. On Error Resume Next
2. On Error Raise Next
3. On Error Next

Answers:
1.b
2.a
3.a
4.a
5.e
6.b
7.a
8.b
9.c
10.b
11.a
12.c
13.b
14.c
15.b
16.a
17.a
18.c
19.a
20.b
21.c
22.a
23.d
24.b
25.a
26.b
27.a
28.1

QTP HP-M016 Certification Paper - 1

HP QTP Certification HP-M016 Practice Exam Questions - 1

Q1. How many tabs are there in Test Settings (File->Settings) window
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8

Q2. 'Browser navigation timeout' is in which tab of Test Settings (File->Settings) window?A) Properties
B) Resources
C) Web
D) Web Settings

Q3. Identify the tabs in the Test Settings (File->Settings) window
A) Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
B) Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web Settings,Recovery
C) Properties, Run Options, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
D) Properties, Run, Resources, Input Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery

Q4. 'Generate Script' is in which tab of Test Settings (File->Settings) window
A) Properties
B) Resources
C) Web
D) Recovery

Q5. For each object and method in an Expert View statement, a corresponding row exists in the Keyword View.
A) True
B) False
C) There is some problem with the statement.
D) None of above

Q6. The following are the four main columns in the Keyword view
A) Item, Operation, Value, Comments
B) Item, Operation, Value, Documentation
C) Item, Operation, Property, Documentation
D) Number, Operation, Value, Documentation

Q7. You can work on one or several function libraries at the same time.
A) True
B) False

Q8. You can insert additional steps on the test objects captured in the Active screen after the recording session.
A) True
B) False

Q9. The Active Screen enables you to parameterize object values and insert checkpoints
A) True
B) False

Q10. A QTP user can increase or decrease the active screen information saved with the test.
A) True
B) False

Q11. The toolbar enables you to view the details of an individual action or the entire test flow is:
A. Testing toolbar
B. None of the above
C. Action toolbar
D. Test Pane

Q12. The key that is used to Start/End analog recording mode ?
A. F3
B. SHIFT+ALT+F3
C. CTRL+SHIFT+F3
D. F10

Q13. QuickTest supports virtual object for analog or low-level recording.
A. False
B. True

Q14. To use a specific property to identify your object, but that property is not listed in the properties list. Then how do you identify that object?
A. Add the specific property to the list
B. Use the Default property
C. Use some other property to identify your object

Q15. The checkpoint used to check the alt attribute exists for all relevant objects (such as images) is
A. Database CheckPoint
B. Accessibility checkpoint
C. Bitmap checkpoint
D. Standard checkpoint

Q16. Bitmap checkpoint is supported in VB environment.
A. True
B. False

Q17. Can we parameterize the checkpoints properties?
A. No
B. Yes

Q18. What is the shortcut key that is used for a Standard Checkpoint?
A. F12
B. F2
C. F10
D. F7

Q19. Can we change name of checkpoint?
A. No
B. Yes

Q20. To compare the values of the specified property during a run session with the values stored for the same test object property within the test.
A. Checkpoint
B. All the above
C. Output Value
D. Compare the object property

Q21. You will use which recording mode for an object not recognized by QuickTest?
A. Low-Level Recording Mode
B. Normal recording Mode
C. Analog Mode

Q22. The statement that calls the recorded analog file is:
A. RunAnalog
B. CallAnalog
C. ExecuteAnalog

Q23. An action can be called by other tests or actions is:
A. Call Action
B. Split Action
C. Reusable Action

Q24. You can replace the page in your Active Screen tab:
A. False
B. True

Q25. QuickTest adds a checkpoint statement in the Expert View as:
A. Check Checkpoint
B. Checkpoint

Q26. A Checkpoint checks that a text string is displayed within a defined area in a Windows application is:
A. Accessibility
B. Text Area
C. Standard
D. Text

Q27. In ACTIVE X environment, an ACCESSIBILITY checkpoint is supported?
A. No
B. Yes

Q28. Can we get the execution time for an action in a Test?
A. Yes
B. No

Q29. Can we add external library files in QTP?
1. No
2. Yes

Q30. The method used to get data from HTML Table is
A. GetData(Row,Col)
B. GetRowValue(Rowid,Colname)
C. GetCellData (Row,Col)

Answers:
 1-d
2-c
3-a
4-a
5-a
6-b
7-a
8-a
9-a
10-a
11-c
12-b
13-a
14-a
15-b
16-a
17-b
18-a
19-a
20-a
21-a
22-a
23-c
24-b
25-a
26-b
27-a
28-a
29-2
30-c

CSTE Sample Paper - 4

CSTE Sample  Practice Papers -4

Objective Questions

1. As a general rule, __________ measures are much more important.
a. Subjective
b. Objective

2. If the measurement taken by the two people are same refers to the term as
a. Reliability
b. Validity
c. Calibration
d. Ease of Use and Simplicity

3. The term __________ refers the degree to which a measure actually measures what it was intended to measure.
a. Reliability
b. Validity
c. Calibration
d. Ease of Use and Simplicity

4. When basic quality aspects have been identified the “standards” should be defined by
a. IT Team
b. Project Manager
c. Quality Assurance personal
d. Management
e. Development Team

5. The “standards” for the software developed using new technology should be defined by
a. IT Team
b. Project Manager
c. Quality Assurance personal
d. Management
e. Development Team

6. If the COTS software developed by the contractor which is from the another country, then the following problem arises:
a. Cultural differences
b. Communication barriers
c. The two words having the same name in diff. countries
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

7. The ‘V’ represents the following term:
a. Verification and Validation
b. Static testing and Dynamic testing
c. Black box and White Box testing
d. Software development process and Software testing process

8. Test Readiness Review is conducted by the
a. Project Manager
b. Test Manager
c. Quality Assurance Personnel
d. User/Customer

9. Acceptance testing is the ________ type of testing
a. Black box testing
b. White box testing
c. Shoe box testing
d. Structural testing

10. __________ is not the White box testing technique.
a. Condition Coverage
b. Decision Coverage
c. Test script coverage
d. User specified Data coverage
e. All of the above

11. Event identification, Risk Response are the term defined in the ___internal control model
a. COSO Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) Model
b. COSO Internal Control Model
c. CobiT Model

12. A statistical technique to assess, monitor and maintain the stability of a process.
a. Pareto Chart
b. Control Chart
c. Run Chart
d. Cause and Effect Diagram
e. Histogram

13. Determination to continue with the software development or not is determined from the
a. Inspection
b. In-process Review
c. Phase end review
d. Don’t remember other options

14. The following is the component for the FIT
a. Data
b. Structure
c. People
d. Rule
e. All of the above

15. A major obstacle for deployment of wireless networks is in the
a. Standards
b. Coverage
c. Security

16. Hand-held and internet enabled devices are example of
a. Electronic equipment
b. Wireless Applications
c. Computer devices

17. Therapeutic listening is
a. Sympathetic listening
b. Listening to pieces of information…
c. Analyzing the listening of the speaker

18. Function point is a measure of
a. Effort
b. Complexity
c. Usability
d. Size

19. Acceptance Testing is the responsibility of the:
a. Programmer
b. Project Leader
c. Independent Tester
d. Assistance programmer
e. User

20. While deciding the Test tool the following factors should be considered
a. Testing for the next builds/releases after making changes
b. Testing where large volumes of data is required
c. Testing based on the UI interface
d. All of the above

21. Completeness can be defined as the
a. Customer says the product is ready
b. Tester says the testing is completed
c. Don’t remember the other options

22. Auxiliary code which sets up an appropriate environment and calls the module is termed as
a. Driver
b. Function
c. Stub
d. None of the above

Subjective Questions:

1. Define the guidelines that are helpful in developing compatibility and motivation of a Software project team.
2. Draw the Pareto chart and explain about it.
3. How do u use control charts for controlling the testing process. Explain control Charts with the diagram.
4. You gave the software for independent testers. You are responsible for Unit, Integration, System, Regression and Acceptance testing. Explain about each testing methods and tell which testing can be given to Independent Testing and Which for development team.
5. Define the Risk, Risk analysis, threat, vulnerability and Control.
6. Explain and diagram report which will be used for reporting uncorrected and corrected defects to the development team?
7. List 5 important things you consider for writing test plan, why do you think they are important.
8. List 5 important parts of an Acceptance test plan and briefly explain the importance of it to your customer.
9. Aspects of computer software that should be observed during the demonstration of COTS software? Commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) is a term for software or hardware products that are ready-made and available for sale, lease, or license to the general public. They are often used as alternatives to in-house developments or one-off government-funded developments. The use of COTS is being mandated across many government and business programs, as they may offer significant savings in procurement and maintenance. However, since COTS software specifications are written by external sources, government agencies are sometimes leery of these products because they fear that future changes to the product will not be in their control.
10. What are the product standards for a. Test Plan b. Test Script c. Test Report