ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No.7
1. ___________ Testing will be performed by the people at client own locations (1M)
A. Alpha testing
A. Alpha testing
B. Field testing
C. Performance testing
D. System testing
2. System testing should investigate (2M)
A. Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements
B. Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements
C. Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements
D. Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements
3. Which is the non-functional testing (1M)
A. Performance testing
2. System testing should investigate (2M)
A. Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements
B. Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements
C. Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements
D. Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements
3. Which is the non-functional testing (1M)
A. Performance testing
B. Unit testing
C. Regression testing
C. Regression testing
D. Sanity testing
4. Who is responsible for document all the issues, problems and open point that were identified during the review meeting (2M)
A. Moderator
4. Who is responsible for document all the issues, problems and open point that were identified during the review meeting (2M)
A. Moderator
B. Scribe
C. Reviewers
D. Author
5. What is the main purpose of Informal review (2M)
A. Inexpensive way to get some benefit
B. Find defects
C. Learning, gaining understanding, effect finding
D. Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems
6. Purpose of test design technique is (1M)
A. Identifying test conditions only, not Identifying test cases
B. Not Identifying test conditions, Identifying test cases only
C. Identifying test conditions and Identifying test cases
D. Identifying test conditions or Identifying test cases
5. What is the main purpose of Informal review (2M)
A. Inexpensive way to get some benefit
B. Find defects
C. Learning, gaining understanding, effect finding
D. Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems
6. Purpose of test design technique is (1M)
A. Identifying test conditions only, not Identifying test cases
B. Not Identifying test conditions, Identifying test cases only
C. Identifying test conditions and Identifying test cases
D. Identifying test conditions or Identifying test cases
7. ___________ technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage (1M)
A. Boundary value analysis
B. Equivalence partitioning
C. Decision table testing
C. Decision table testing
D. State transition testing
8. Use cases can be performed to test (2M)
A. Performance testing
8. Use cases can be performed to test (2M)
A. Performance testing
B. Unit testing
C. Business scenarios
C. Business scenarios
D. Static testing
9. ________________ testing is performed at the developing organization’s site (1M)
A. Unit testing
9. ________________ testing is performed at the developing organization’s site (1M)
A. Unit testing
B. Regression testing
C. Alpha testing
C. Alpha testing
D. Integration testing
10. The purpose of exit criteria is (2M)
A. Define when to stop testing
B. End of test level
C. When a set of tests has achieved a specific pre condition
D. All of the above
11. Which is not the project risks (2M)
A. Supplier issues
10. The purpose of exit criteria is (2M)
A. Define when to stop testing
B. End of test level
C. When a set of tests has achieved a specific pre condition
D. All of the above
11. Which is not the project risks (2M)
A. Supplier issues
B. Organization factors
C. Technical issues
C. Technical issues
D. Error-prone software delivered
12. Poor software characteristics are (3M)
A. Only Project risks
B. Only Product risks
C. Project risks and Product risks
D. Project risks or Product risks
12. Poor software characteristics are (3M)
A. Only Project risks
B. Only Product risks
C. Project risks and Product risks
D. Project risks or Product risks
13. ________ and ________ are used within individual workbenches to produce the right output products. (2M)
A. Tools and techniques
B. Procedures and standards
C. Processes and walkthroughs
C. Processes and walkthroughs
D. Reviews and update
14. The software engineer's role in tool selection is (3M)
A. To identify, evaluate, and rank tools, and recommend tools to management
B. To determine what kind of tool is needed, then find it and buy it
C. To initiate the tool search and present a case to management
D. To identify, evaluate and select the tools
15. A _____ is the step-by-step method followed to ensure that standards are met (2M)
A. SDLC
14. The software engineer's role in tool selection is (3M)
A. To identify, evaluate, and rank tools, and recommend tools to management
B. To determine what kind of tool is needed, then find it and buy it
C. To initiate the tool search and present a case to management
D. To identify, evaluate and select the tools
15. A _____ is the step-by-step method followed to ensure that standards are met (2M)
A. SDLC
B. Project Plan
C. Policy
D. Procedure
16. Which of the following is the standard for the Software product quality (1M)
A. ISO 1926 B. ISO 829 C. ISO 1012 D. ISO 1028
17. Which is not the testing objectives (1M)
A. Finding defects
B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information
C. Preventing defects.
D. Debugging defects
18. Bug life cycle (1M)
A. Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed
B. Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed
C. Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed
D. Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed
19. Which is not the software characteristics (1M)
A. Reliability
16. Which of the following is the standard for the Software product quality (1M)
A. ISO 1926 B. ISO 829 C. ISO 1012 D. ISO 1028
17. Which is not the testing objectives (1M)
A. Finding defects
B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information
C. Preventing defects.
D. Debugging defects
18. Bug life cycle (1M)
A. Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed
B. Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed
C. Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed
D. Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed
19. Which is not the software characteristics (1M)
A. Reliability
B. Usability
C. Scalability
D. Maintainability
20. Which is not a testing principle (2M)
A. Early testing
20. Which is not a testing principle (2M)
A. Early testing
B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox
C. Pesticide paradox
D. Exhaustive testing
21. ‘X’ has given a data on a person age, which should be between 1 to 99. Using BVA which is the appropriate one (3M)
A. 0,1,2,99
21. ‘X’ has given a data on a person age, which should be between 1 to 99. Using BVA which is the appropriate one (3M)
A. 0,1,2,99
B. 1, 99, 100, 98
C. 0, 1, 99, 100
D. –1, 0, 1, 99
22. Which is not the fundamental test process (1M)
A. Planning and control
22. Which is not the fundamental test process (1M)
A. Planning and control
B. Test closure activities
C. Analysis and design
C. Analysis and design
D. None
23. Which is not a Component testing (2M)
A. Check the memory leaks
23. Which is not a Component testing (2M)
A. Check the memory leaks
B. Check the robustness
C. Check the branch coverage
C. Check the branch coverage
D. Check the decision tables
24. PDCA is known as (1M)
A. Plan, Do, Check, Act
24. PDCA is known as (1M)
A. Plan, Do, Check, Act
B. Plan, Do, Correct, Act
C. Plan, Debug, Check, Act
C. Plan, Debug, Check, Act
D. Plan, Do, Check, Accept
25. Contract and regulation testing is a part of (2M)
A. System testing
25. Contract and regulation testing is a part of (2M)
A. System testing
B. Acceptance testing
C. Integration testing
C. Integration testing
D. Smoke testing
26. Which is not a black box testing technique (1M)
A. Equivalence partition
26. Which is not a black box testing technique (1M)
A. Equivalence partition
B. Decision tables
C. Transaction diagrams
C. Transaction diagrams
D. Decision testing
27. Arc testing is known as (2M)
A. Branch testing
27. Arc testing is known as (2M)
A. Branch testing
B. Agile testing
C. Beta testing
C. Beta testing
D. Ad-hoc testing
28. A software model that can’t be used in functional testing (2M)
A. Process flow model B. State transaction model
C. Menu structure model D. Plain language specification model
29. Find the mismatch (2M)
A. Test data preparation tools – Manipulate Data bases
B. Test design tools – Generate test inputs
C. Requirement management tools – Enables individual tests to be traceable
D. Configuration management tools – Check for consistence
30. The principle of Cyclomatic complexity, considering L as edges or links, N as nodes, P as independent paths (2M)
A. L-N +2P
B. N-L +2P
C. N-L +P
D. N-L +P
31. FPA is used to (2M)
A. To measure the functional requirements of the project
B. To measure the size of the functionality of an Information system
C. To measure the functional testing effort
D. To measure the functional flow
32. Which is not a test Oracle (2M)
A. The existing system (For a bench mark)
B. The code
C. Individual’s knowledge
D. User manual
33. Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal review (3M)
A. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick off
B. Planning, Individual preparation, Kick off, Rework
C. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Follow up
D. Planning, Individual preparation, Follow up, Kick off
34. Stochastic testing using statistical information or operational profiles uses the following method (3M)
A. Heuristic testing approach
B. Methodical testing approach
C. Model based testing approach
D. Process or standard compliant testing approach
35. A project that is in the implementation phase is six weeks behind schedule. The delivery date for the product is four months away. The project is not allowed to slip the delivery date or compromise on the quality standards established for this product. Which of the following actions would bring this project back on schedule? (3M)
A. Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been implemented.
B. Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.
C. Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work is recovered.
D. Hire more software quality assurance personnel.
36. One person has been dominating the current software process improvement meeting. Which of the following techniques should the facilitator use to bring other team members into the discussion? (3M)
A. Confront the person and ask that other team members be allowed to express their opinions.
B. Wait for the person to pause, acknowledge the person’ s opinion, and ask for someone else’ s opinion.
C. Switch the topic to an issue about which the person does not have a strong opinion.
D. Express an opinion that differs from the person’ s opinion in order to encourage others to express their ideas.
37. Maintenance releases and technical assistance centers are examples of which of the following costs of quality? (3M)
A. External failure
B. Internal failure
C. Appraisal
D. Prevention
Answers:
28. A software model that can’t be used in functional testing (2M)
A. Process flow model B. State transaction model
C. Menu structure model D. Plain language specification model
29. Find the mismatch (2M)
A. Test data preparation tools – Manipulate Data bases
B. Test design tools – Generate test inputs
C. Requirement management tools – Enables individual tests to be traceable
D. Configuration management tools – Check for consistence
30. The principle of Cyclomatic complexity, considering L as edges or links, N as nodes, P as independent paths (2M)
A. L-N +2P
B. N-L +2P
C. N-L +P
D. N-L +P
31. FPA is used to (2M)
A. To measure the functional requirements of the project
B. To measure the size of the functionality of an Information system
C. To measure the functional testing effort
D. To measure the functional flow
32. Which is not a test Oracle (2M)
A. The existing system (For a bench mark)
B. The code
C. Individual’s knowledge
D. User manual
33. Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal review (3M)
A. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick off
B. Planning, Individual preparation, Kick off, Rework
C. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Follow up
D. Planning, Individual preparation, Follow up, Kick off
34. Stochastic testing using statistical information or operational profiles uses the following method (3M)
A. Heuristic testing approach
B. Methodical testing approach
C. Model based testing approach
D. Process or standard compliant testing approach
35. A project that is in the implementation phase is six weeks behind schedule. The delivery date for the product is four months away. The project is not allowed to slip the delivery date or compromise on the quality standards established for this product. Which of the following actions would bring this project back on schedule? (3M)
A. Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been implemented.
B. Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.
C. Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work is recovered.
D. Hire more software quality assurance personnel.
36. One person has been dominating the current software process improvement meeting. Which of the following techniques should the facilitator use to bring other team members into the discussion? (3M)
A. Confront the person and ask that other team members be allowed to express their opinions.
B. Wait for the person to pause, acknowledge the person’ s opinion, and ask for someone else’ s opinion.
C. Switch the topic to an issue about which the person does not have a strong opinion.
D. Express an opinion that differs from the person’ s opinion in order to encourage others to express their ideas.
37. Maintenance releases and technical assistance centers are examples of which of the following costs of quality? (3M)
A. External failure
B. Internal failure
C. Appraisal
D. Prevention
Answers:
1 B 20 D
2 C 21 C
3 A 22 D
4 B 23 D
5 A 24 A
6 C 25 B
7 B 26 D
8 C 27 A
9 C 28 C
10 D 29 D
11 D 30 A
12 B 31 B
13 B 32 B
14 A 33 C
15 D 34 C
16 A 35 A
17 D 36 B
18 A 37 A
19 C
Why the answer for Q5 is A and not B?. I think the correct answer is B , because the scope of the informal review is the same like formal review , to find defects. But this is done different.
ReplyDeleteHi, this is a matter of a definition, if you looked into section 3.2.3 of the Foundation Syllabus you would find there:
Delete"(...)
Informal review:
- no formal process
- make take the form of pair programming or a technical lead reviewing designs and code
- results may be documented
- varies in usefulness depending on reviewers
- main purpose: inexpensive way to get some benefit
(...)"
Hi
ReplyDeleteThank you for great page
Please let me know the question 33 answer alternatives non of them suits the syllabus 2010, or am I missing something
Thanks for advance
/K
Hello Kalenders,
DeleteAccording to ISTQB syllabus the phases of formal review is as given below:
3.2.1 Phases of a formal review
In contrast to informal reviews, formal reviews follow a formal process. A typical formal review process consists of six main steps:
1 Planning
2 Kick-off
3 Preparation
4 Review meeting
5 Rework
6 Follow-up.
So the correct answer for Question 33 is C.
Check the ISTQB foundation level book that is: "Foundations of Software Testing".
Hi
ReplyDeleteCould you please explain why correct answer to Question7 is B and not C?
Thanks
Hi Alla,
DeleteI see where your confusion comes from as in both techniques (decision tables and equivalence classes) you would use both input and output values, but it all comes down to a question which technique comes first, which you use to create the other.
I would dare to claim that in order to create a valid (efficient) decision table you would have to define equivalence classes from input/output values and only after having this classes in hand you'd be able to compose a decision table.
That's why this technique is claimed to be an answer - nevertheless I agree that this question might be confusing.
Actually I have the same question)
ReplyDeleteHi for Question 7 why is it not BVA and why EP
ReplyDeleteThis comment has been removed by the author.
ReplyDeleteSince syllabus is changed after 2011 , the book which is released by Rex black and Dorothy graham third edition the most of the stuff is simply eliminated which is still there some times its confusing !!
ReplyDeleteI must agree with that Saad, BUT even first edition on which these tests are based is very comprehensive and the syllabus (as of 2011) is the summary of that book. Even if someone goes by the book there is less deviation with current syllabus. The level of depth is more.
DeleteIMO a good practice of these exams and good go through of the book will make the syllabus relatively easy. But one should refer to the third edition or latest edition of the book.
The statement in Q 16 the first A option should be ISO 9126 instead of ISO 1926. Answer is correct A
ReplyDeleteThis comment has been removed by the author.
ReplyDeleteI didn't understand the 30th question? Could some one explain please
ReplyDelete37. Maintenance releases and technical assistance centers are examples of which of the following costs of quality? (3M)
ReplyDeleteA. External failure
B. Internal failure
C. Appraisal
D. Prevention
Could some one explain help me about this question, thanks alot.
Follow this link for same set of paper
ReplyDeletehttp://www.slideshare.net/warsha.agarwal/istqb-sample-question-paper-5-presentation
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