1. Which of the following is true
a. Testing is
the same as quality assurance
b. Testing is
a part of quality assurance
c. Testing is
not a part of quality assurance
d. Testing is
same as debugging
2. Why is testing necessary?
a. Because
testing is good method to make there are not defects in the software
b. Because
verification and validation are nto enough to get to know the quality of the
software
c. Because
testing measures the quality of the software system and helps to increase the
quality
d. Because
testing finds more defects than reviews and inspections.
3. Integration testing has following characteristics
I. It can be
done in incremental manner
II. It is
always done after system testing
III. It
includes functional tests
IV. It
includes non-functional tests
a. I, II and
III are correct
b. I is
correct
c. I, III and
IV are correct
d. I, II and
IV are correct
4. A number of critical bugs are fixed in software. All the bugs
are in one module, related to
reports. The
test manager decides to do regression testing only on the reports module.
a. The test
manager should do only automated regression testing.
b. The test
manager is justified in her decision because no bug has been fixed in other
modules
c. The test
manager should only do confirmation testing. There is no need to do regression
testing
d. Regression
testing should be done on other modules as well because fixing one module
may affect
other modules
5. Which of the following is correct about static analysis tools?
a. Static
analysis tools are used only by developers
b. Compilers
may offer some support for static analysis
c. Static
analysis tools help find failures rather than defects
d. Static
analysis tools require execution of the code to analyze the coverage
6. In a flight reservation system, the number of available seats
in each plane model is an input.
A plane may have any positive number of available seats, up to the
given capacity of the plane.
Using Boundary Value analysis, a list of available – seat values were
generated. Which of the
following lists is correct?
a. 1, 2,
capacity -1, capacity, capacity plus 1
b. 0, 1,
capacity, capacity plus 1
c. 0, 1, 2,
capacity plus 1, a very large number
d. 0, 1, 10,
100, capacity, capacity plus one
7. For the code fragment given below, which answer correctly
represents minimum tests
required for statement and branch coverage respectively?
Discount rate=1;
Fare = 1000;
If ((person == “senior citizen”) and (“travel month = January”))
Bonuspoints = 100+Bonuspoints
If (class==”first”)
discountRate = .5;
Fare = fare * discountRate;
a. Statement
Coverage = 1, Branch Coverage = 2
b. Statement
Coverage = 2, Branch Coverage = 2
c. Statement
Coverage = 1, Branch Coverage = 3
d. Statement
Coverage = 2, Branch Coverage = 4
8. Which of the following is correct about static analysis tools
a. They help
you find defects rather than failures
b. They are
used by developers only
c. They
require compilation of code
d. They are
useful only for regulated industries
9. Acme Inc. decides to use functional test execution automation
tool for testing GUI of their
product. The GUI is expected to change frequently. Acme Inc. has
put some of the manual
testers through a 3 day training program on how to use the tool.
Which of the following is likely
to be true?
a. Automation
is likely to fail because of frequent changes and lack of experience
b. Automation
is likely to fail because of GUI automation is not the right way to automate
c. Automation
is likely to succeed because automation is very useful for frequent changes
d. Automation
is likely to succeed because the team has been trained on tool.
10. In foundation level syllabus you will find the main basic
principles of testing. Which of the
following sentences describes one of these basic principles?
a. Complete
testing of software is attainable if you have enough resources and test tools
b. With
automated testing you can make statements with more confidence about the
quality of a
product than with manual testing
c. For a software
system, it is not possible, under normal conditions, to test all input and
output
combinations.
d. A goal of
testing is to show that the software is defect free.
11. Which of the following statements contains a valid goal for a
functional test set?
a. A goal is
that no more failures will result from the remaining defects
b. A goal is
to find as many failures as possible so that the cause of the failures can be
identified and
fixed
c. A goal is
to eliminate as much as possible the causes of defects
d. A goal is
to fulfil all requirements for testing that are defined in the project plan.
12. In system testing...
a. .. Both
functional and non-functional requirements are to be tested
b. ... Only
functional requirements are tested; non-functional requirements are validated
in
a review
c. ... Only
non-functional requirements are tested; functional requirements are validated
in
a review
d. ... Only
requirements which are listed in the specification document are to be tested
13. Which of the following activities differentiate a walkthrough
from a formal review?
a. A
walkthrough does not follow a defined process
b. For a
walkthrough individual preparation by the reviewers is optional
c. A walkthrough
requires meeting
d. A
walkthrough finds the causes of failures, while formal review finds the
failures
14. Why does the boundary value analysis provide good test cases?
a. Because it
is an industry standard
b. Because
errors are frequently made during programming of the different cases near the
‘edges’ of the
range of values
c. Because
only equivalence classes that are equal from a functional point of view are
considered in
the test cases
d. Because the
test object is tested under maximal load up to its performance limits
15. Which of the following list contains only non-functional
tests?
a.
Interoperability (compatibility) testing, reliability testing, performance
testing
b. System
testing, performance testing
c. Load
testing, stress testing, component testing, portability testing
d. Testing
various configurations, beta testing, load testing
16. The
following list contains risks that have been identified for a software product
to be
developed.
Which of these risks is an example of a product risk?
a. Not enough
qualified testers to complete the planned tests
b. Software
delivery is behind schedule
c. Threat to a
patient’s life
d. 3rd party
supplier does not supply as stipulated
17. Which set of metrics can be used for monitoring of the test
execution?
a. Number of
detected defects, testing cost;
b. Number of
residual defects in the test object.
c. Percentage
of completed tasks in the preparation of test environment; test cases
prepared
d. Number of
test cases run / not run; test cases passed / failed
18. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Static
analysis tools produce statistics during program execution
b.
Configuration management systems allow us to provide accurate defect statistics
of
different
configurations
c. Stress
testing tools examine the behaviour of the test object at or beyond full load
d. Performance
measurement tools can be used in all phases of software life-cycle
19. What makes an inspection different from other review types?
a. It is led
by a trained leader, uses formal entry and exit criteria and checklists
b. It is led
by the author of the document to be inspected
c. It can only
be used for reviewing design and code
d. It is led
by the author, uses checklists, and collects data for improvement
20. Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence
classes for the following
problem: An integer field shall contain values from and including
1 to and including 15
a. Less than
1, 1 through 15, more than 15
b. Negative
numbers, 1 through 15, above 15
c. Less than
1, 1 through 14, more than 15
d. Less than
0, 1 through 14, 15 and more
21. Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence
classes for the following
problem: Paying with credit cards shall be possible with Visa,
Master and Amex cards only.
a. Visa,
Master, Amex;
b. Visa,
Master, Amex, Diners, Keycards, and other option
c. Visa,
Master, Amex, any other card, no card
d. No card,
other cards, any of Visa – Master – Amex
22. Which of the following techniques are black box techniques?
a. State
transition testing, code testing, agile testing
b. Equivalence
partitioning, state transition testing, decision table testing
c. System
testing, acceptance testing, equivalence partitioning
d. System
integration testing, system testing, decision table testing
23. A defect management system shall keep track of the status of
every defect registered and
enforce the rules about changing these states. If your task is to
test the status tracking, which
method would be best?
a. Logic-based
testing
b.
Use-case-based testing
c. State
transition testing
d. Systematic
testing according to the V-model
24. If a program is tested and 100% condition coverage is
achieved, which of the following
coverage criteria is then guaranteed to be achieved?
a. 100% branch
coverage
b. 100%
condition coverage and 100% statement coverage
c. Equivalence
class and boundary value coverage
d. No other
white box coverage criterion is guaranteed to be fulfilled 100%
25. This part of a program is given:-
WHILE (condition A) Do B
END WHILE
How many decisions should be tested in this code in order to
achieve 100% decision coverage?
a. 2
b. Indefinite
c. 1
d. 4
26. Why can be tester dependent on configuration management?
a. Because
configuration management assures that we know the exact version of the
testware and
the test object
b. Because
test execution is not allowed to proceed without the consent of the change
control board
c. Because
changes in the test object are always subject to configuration management
d. Because
configuration management assures the right configuration of the test tools
27. What test items should be put under configuration management?
a. The test
object, the test material and the test environment
b. The problem
reports and the test material
c. Only the
test object. The test cases need to be adapted during agile testing
d. The test
object and the test material
28. Why is successful test execution automation difficult?
a. Because the
tools for automated testing require too much effort for learning
b. Because the
maintenance of the test system is difficult
c. Because the
test robot tools are restricted in their ability to recognize outputs
d. Because the
test robot needs to be supported by a test management.
29. Which of the following can be root cause of a bug in a
software product?
(I) The
project had incomplete procedures for configuration management.
(II) The time
schedule to develop a certain component was cut.
(III) the
specification was unclear
(IV) Use of
the code standard was not followed up
(V) The
testers were not certified
a. (I) and
(II) are correct
b. (I) through
(IV) are correct
c. (III)
through (V) are correct
d. (I), (II)
and (IV) are correct
30. Which of the following is most often considered as components
interface bug?
a. For two
components exchanging data, one component used metric units, the other one
used British
units
b. The system
is difficult to use due to a too complicated terminal input structure
c. The
messages for user input errors are misleading and not helpful for understanding
the
input error
cause
d. Under high
load, the system does not provide enough open ports to connect to
31. Which of the following project inputs influence testing?
(I) contractual requirements
(II) legal requirements
(III) Industry standards
(IV) application risk
(V) project size
a. (I) through
(III) are correct
b. All
alternatives are correct
c. (II) and
(V) are correct
d. (I), (III)
and (V) are correct
32. If a program is tested and 100% branch coverage is achieved,
which of the following
coverage criteria is then guaranteed to be achieved?
a. 100% Equivalence class coverage
b. 100% Condition coverage and 100% Statement coverage
c. 100% Statement coverage
d. 100% Multiple condition coverage
33. This part of a program is given:-
WHILE (condition A) Do B
END WHILE
How many paths should be tested in this code in order to achieve
100% path coverage?
a. One
b. Indefinite
c. Two
d. Four
34. What is the purpose of test exit criteria in the test plan?
a. To specify
when to stop the testing activity
b. To set the
criteria used in generating test inputs
c. To ensure
that the test case specification is complete
d. To know
when a specific test has finished its execution
35. Which of the following items need not to be given in an
incident report?
a. The version
number of the test object
b. Test data
and used environment
c.
Identification of the test case that failed
d. The
location and instructions on how to correct the fault
36. V-Model is:
a. A software
development model that illustrates how testing activities integrate with
software
development phases
b. A software
life-cycle model that is not relevant for testing
c. The
official software development and testing life-cycle model of ISTQB
d. A testing
life cycle model including unit, integration, system and acceptance phases
37. Why is incremental integration preferred over “big bang”
integration?
a. Because
incremental integration has better early defects screening and isolation
ability
b. Because “big
bang” integration is suitable only for real time applications
c. Incremental
integration is preferred over “Big Bang Integration” only for “bottom up”
development
model
d. Because
incremental integration can compensate for weak and inadequate component
testing
38. Maintenance testing is:
a. Testing
management
b. Synonym of
testing the quality of service
c. Triggered
by modifications, migration or retirement of existing software
d. Testing the
level of maintenance by the vendor
39. A test engineer is testing a Video Player (VCR), and logs the
following report:
Title: Fast Forward stops after 2 minutes. It happens every time
Expected result: Fast forward continues till the end of the tape
Severity: High
Priority: Urgent
What important information did the engineer leave out?
a.
Identification (Software and hardware) of the VCR
b. Actual
result
c. History of
the report
d. Ideas for
the test case improvement
40. Why is it necessary to define a Test Strategy?
a. As there
are many different ways to test software, thought must be given to decide what
will be the
most effective way to test the project on hand.
b. Starting
testing without prior planning leads to chaotic and inefficient test project
c. A strategy
is needed to inform the project management how the test team will schedule
the
test-cycles
d. Software
failure may cause loss of money, time, business reputation, and in extreme
cases injury
and death. It is therefore critical to have a proper test strategy in place.
Answers:
1 - B
2 - C
3 - C
4 - D
5 - B
6 - B
7 - A
8 - A
9 - A
10 - C
11 - B
12 - A
13 - B
14 - B
15 - C
16 - C
17 - D
18 - C
19 - A
20 - A
21 - D
22 - B
23 - C
24 - B
25 - A
26 - A
27 - A
28 - B
29 - B
30 - A
31 - B
32 - B
33 - C
34 - A
35 - D
36 - A
37 - A
38 - C
39 - B
40 - D
Answer to Q.39 should probably rather be A not B (actual result is provided "Fast forward stops after 2 minutes")
ReplyDeletejust to confirm my statement in P.24:Q.22 there is the same question with the correct answer.
DeleteHi Dudek,
DeleteAgree... it should be “A” not option “B”...
I'm very confused about the answer! I think the good abswer is "A" because even if the Actual Result is not well defined as Actual result, The actual result is written "Fast Forward stops after 2 minutes". The real informations missing are : Which Software is under test and in wich environment?
DeleteMay be, I am wrong in the way of thinking but I think the best answer is "A"
Correct answer is A -> Same question can be found in Sample paper 24 Q.22 with correct answer.
DeleteWhy answer is C for Q15?
ReplyDeleteI believe the answer should be A. Interoperability (compatibility) testing, reliability testing, performance (load) testing are all non-functional testing.
Component testing in C is a functional testing.
i agree. Q15 ans should be A. Please review.
DeleteHi i just wanted to Notify you that question number 25 and question number 33 are same. Please do correct it as soon as possible.. :)
ReplyDeleteHi Ankit,
Deletethese questions are not the same, one considers decision coverage while the other considers path coverage. Decision coverage tells us whether for every decision our tests exercise every possible option (similar to branch coverage, not exactly the same thou) while path coverage tells us if we've tested all possible paths that leads through our system please refer to this blog-post for more visual information regarding difference between branch/path coverage:
http://testersthoughtsuncombed.blogspot.com/2013/02/statement-coverage-vs-branch-coverage.html
and take a look at this stackoverflow article to see the difference between branch/decision coverage:
http://stackoverflow.com/questions/12398494/is-branch-coverage-the-same-as-decision-coverage
Why answer is A for Q7? I believe the answer should be C.
ReplyDeleteI agree;
Delete(Branch 1) true in the first condition and true in the second condition
(Branch 2) true in the first condition and false in the second condition
(Branch 3) false in the first condition
The correct answer is A for Q7 as there are two independent if conditions. Both of them have updates for only true.
DeleteHi,
ReplyDeleteCan anybody give some explanation about the answer of Q6? Which is mentioned here ‘B’.
Why not question 40 answer is c
ReplyDeleteI guess Q:5 has typo mistake. NOT-CORRECT Instead of CORRECT.
ReplyDeleteCan someone please explain why for Q21 answer is D and not C? What is the 'major difference' between these two? :D
ReplyDeletec. Visa, Master, Amex, any other card, no card
d. No card, other cards, any of Visa – Master – Amex
This comment has been removed by the author.
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ReplyDelete