ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No.2
1. When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called:
a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect
e) a mistake
2. Regression testing should be performed:
v) every week
w) after the software has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says
a) v & w are true, x – z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x y and z are false
e) all of the above are true
3. IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:
a) test items
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test environment
e) test specification
4. Testing should be stopped when:
a) all the planned tests have been run
b) time has run out
c) all faults have been fixed correctly
d) both a) and c)
e) it depends on the risks for the system being tested
5. Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries:
a) 1000, 5000, 99999
b) 9999, 50000, 100000
c) 10000, 50000, 99999
d) 10000, 99999
e) 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000
6. Consider the following statements about early test design:
i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. early test design can find faults
iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. early test design takes more effort
a) i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false
b) iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false
c) iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false
d) i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false
e) i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false
7. Non-functional system testing includes:
a) testing to see where the system does not function properly
b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) testing a system feature using only the software required for that action
d) testing a system feature using only the software required for that function
e) testing for functions that should not exist
8. Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:
a) status accounting of configuration items
b) auditing conformance to ISO9001
c) identification of test versions
d) record of changes to documentation over time
e) controlled library access
9. Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?
a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c) to specify which modules to combine when and how many at once
d) to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
e) to specify how the software should be divided into modules
10. What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:
a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to know when test planning is complete
e) to plan when to stop testing
11. Consider the following statements
i. an incident may be closed without being fixed
ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation
iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing
iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments
v. incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test
a) ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false
b) i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
c) i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false
d) i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false
e) i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false
12. Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage:
Read P
Read Q
IF P+Q > 100 THEN
Print “Large”
ENDIF
If P > 50 THEN
Print “P Large”
ENDIF
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
13. Given the following:
Switch PC on
Start “outlook”
IF outlook appears THEN
Send an email
Close outlook
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
14. Given the following code, which is true:
IF A > B THEN
C = A – B
ELSE
C = A + B
ENDIF
Read D
IF C = D Then
Print “Error”
ENDIF
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
15. Consider the following:
Pick up and read the newspaper
Look at what is on television
If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the television on and watch the program
Otherwise
Continue reading the newspaper
If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword
a) SC = 1 and DC = 1
b) SC = 1 and DC = 2
c) SC = 1 and DC = 3
d) SC = 2 and DC = 2
e) SC = 2 and DC = 3
16. The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:
a) Attend a tool exhibition
b) Invite a vendor to give a demo
c) Analyse your needs and requirements
d) Find out what your budget would be for the tool
e) Search the internet
17. When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:
a) A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
b) Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c) The independent testing team
d) The managers to see what projects it should be used in
e) The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts
18. What can static analysis NOT find?
a) The use of a variable before it has been defined
b) Unreachable (“dead”) code
c) Whether the value stored in a variable is correct
d) The re-definition of a variable before it has been used
e) Array bound violations
19. Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:
a) Equivalence partitioning
b) State transition testing
c) LCSAJ
d) Syntax testing
e) Boundary value analysis
20. Beta testing is:
a) Performed by customers at their own site
b) Performed by customers at their software developer’s site
c) Performed by an independent test team
d) Useful to test bespoke software
e) Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle
21. Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers and which by an independent test team:
i. static analysis
ii. performance testing
iii. test management
iv. dynamic analysis
v. test running
vi. test data preparation
a) developers would typically use i, iv and vi; test team ii, iii and v
b) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii, iii, v and vi
c) developers would typically use i, ii, iii and iv; test team v and vi
d) developers would typically use ii, iv and vi; test team I, ii and v
e) developers would typically use i, iii, iv and v; test team ii and vi
22. The main focus of acceptance testing is:
a) finding faults in the system
b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c) testing the system with other systems
d) testing for a business perspective
e) testing by an independent test team
23. Which of the following statements about the component testing standard is false:
a) black box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
b) white box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d) black box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
e) white box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
24. Which of the following statements is NOT true:
a) inspection is the most formal review process
b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
e) inspection compares documents with predecessor (source) documents
25. A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT:
a) generating expected outputs
b) replaying inputs according to a programmed script
c) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
d) recording test inputs
e) reading test values from a data file
26. The difference between re-testing and regression testing is
a) re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests
c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment
e) re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers
27. Expected results are:
a) only important in system testing
b) only used in component testing
c) never specified in advance
d) most useful when specified in advance
e) derived from the code
28. Test managers should not:
a) report on deviations from the project plan
b) sign the system off for release
c) re-allocate resource to meet original plans
d) raise incidents on faults that they have found
e) provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement
29. Unreachable code would best be found using:
a) code reviews
b) code inspections
c) a coverage tool
d) a test management tool
e) a static analysis tool
30. A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called:
a) a dynamic analysis tool
b) a test execution tool
c) a debugging tool
d) a test management tool
e) a configuration management tool
31. What information need not be included in a test incident report:
a) how to fix the fault
b) how to reproduce the fault
c) test environment details
d) severity, priority
e) the actual and expected outcomes
32. Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review processes:1. led by author
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a trained moderator or leader
5. uses entry exit criteria
s) inspection
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walkthrough
a) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
b) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
e) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3
33. Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:
a) business process-based testing
b) performance, load and stress testing
c) requirements-based testing
d) usability testing
e) top-down integration testing
34. What statement about expected outcomes is FALSE:
a) expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour
b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c) expected outcomes include outputs to a screen and changes to files and databases
d) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
e) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
35. The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS7925-1
c) BS7925-2
d) ANSI/IEEE 829
e) ANSI/IEEE 729
36. The cost of fixing a fault:
a) Is not important
b) Increases as we move the product towards live use
c) Decreases as we move the product towards live use
d) Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design
e) Can never be determined
37. Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard:
a) Test items (i.e. software versions)
b) What is not to be tested
c) Test environments
d) Quality plans
e) Schedules and deadlines
38. Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing:
a) No, because they apply to development documentation
b) No, because they are normally applied before testing
c) No, because they do not apply to the test documentation
d) Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
e) Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities
39. Which of the following is not part of performance testing:
a) Measuring response time
b) Measuring transaction rates
c) Recovery testing
d) Simulating many users
e) Generating many transactions
40. Error guessing is best used
a) As the first approach to deriving test cases
b) After more formal techniques have been applied
c) By inexperienced testers
d) After the system has gone live
e) Only by end users
Answers:
1 C
2 C
3 E
4 E
5 C
6 A
7 B
8 B
9 C
10 E
11 B
12 B
13 B
14 B
15 E
16 C
17 B
18 C
19 C
20 A
21 B
22 D
23 A
24 D
25 A
26 A
27 D
28 C
29 E
30 D
31 A
32 B
33 E
34 A
35 B
36 B
37 D
38 D
39 C
40 B
1 C
2 C
3 E
4 E
5 C
6 A
7 B
8 B
9 C
10 E
11 B
12 B
13 B
14 B
15 E
16 C
17 B
18 C
19 C
20 A
21 B
22 D
23 A
24 D
25 A
26 A
27 D
28 C
29 E
30 D
31 A
32 B
33 E
34 A
35 B
36 B
37 D
38 D
39 C
40 B
I am confused about some answers.
ReplyDeleteAre all of the answers correct e.g Q29 ?
Johan
HI Johan,
ReplyDeleteThanks for the finding.
I have corrected the anwser for the question 29.
If you have more doubts about any answers then please send me the feedback I will review and correct.
As I create a lot of sample questions so some typo mistakes are there.
It should be E. Static analysis tool
Deleteyes it should be E) Static analysis tool...plz read the following topic:
ReplyDeleteTypes of Errors Static Analysis Tools Discover:
Functional Flaws
Dependency walker - Reports missing libraries or other dependencies needed by the application.
Cyclomatic complexity – This metric can show how complex an application is, this may show where complex functional bugs may be hidden.
Coding standards – Coding standards help code to be easily updated and read by other developers.
Interdependency – Interdependency can show the relationship of how each source file is dependent on others.
Array out of bounds – If arrays are not properly checked they can cause both functional bugs and possible security bugs. Arbitrary memory locations may be read.
Uninitialized variables – Uninitialized variables can cause many problems within the application including crashing and unnoticed bugs that my surface later as intermittent instability or miscalculations.
Unused variables – Unused variables lessen the readability of the code and should be removed.
Dead code - Dead code is orphaned and unreachable so it remains untested throughout the product cycle.
Rounding errors – Rounding errors can cause mathematical errors as well as functional bugs resulting in crashes.
Hello Nabanita,
DeleteThe answer has been corrected.
And thanks a ton for the reasons explained.
Is 30 right?
ReplyDelete30. A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called:
e) a configuration management tool
It seems like Test Management Tool would be more suitable. This is taken from ISEB ISTQB Foundation Study Guide Version 1.4
Test management tool
A tool that provides support to the test management and control part of a test
process. It often has several capabilities, such as testware management, scheduling
of tests, the logging of results, progress tracking, incident management and test
reporting.
Configuration Management Tools:
Although not strictly a Testing type of tool, they are useful in version control of software
development builds and software tests. They provide support for the identification and
control of configuration items, their status over changes and versions, and the release of
baselines consisting of configuration items. They can be used to ensure traceability
between testware and software work products. This type of tool can be particularly
useful when testing on multiple hardware/software environments, as information relating
to versions of operating systems, libraries, browsers, computers etc.
Hello Grant,
DeleteThe answer has been corrected.
And thanks a ton for the reasons explained.
31 also doesnt seem right
ReplyDelete31. What information need not be included in a test incident report:
e) the actual and expected outcomes
Should be
a) how to fix the fault
This is taken from ISEB ISTQB Foundation Study Guide Version 1.4:
Details of the incident report may include:
Date of issue, issuing organization, and author.
Expected and actual results
Identification of the test item (configuration item) and environment.
Software or system life cycle process in which the incident was observed.
Hello Grant,
DeleteThe answer has been corrected.
And thanks a ton for the reasons explained.
I believe 17 is wrong. The correct answer should be A. Please review.
ReplyDeleteHello James,
DeleteQuestion: 17 is having the correct answer.
The reason is "Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool".
As the tool is new and everyone in the team can explore tool in order to gain a real benefit of the newly purchased tool.
Per section 6.3 Introducing a Tool into an Organization from the ISTQB Certified Tester Syllabus: "Introducing the selected tool into an organization starts with a pilot project". That seems to most closely match answer A. The section goes on to state: "Success factors for the deployment of the tool within an organization include Rolling out the tool to the rest of the organization incrementally", which seems to disagree with answer B.
DeleteHello Aaron,
DeletePlease check the section 6.3 in the ISTQB foundation level syllabus.
Sincerely,
This comment has been removed by the author.
DeleteDears,
Deleteon this website: http://www.testingexcellence.com/istqb-quiz/istqb-foundation-practice-exam-1/ the same exact question have "A" as the correct answer.
Dear ISTQB Personnel,
Deletein Sample test No. 13. on this webpage Q24.is the same as Q.. here: "When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:"
There in the key You yourself give as correct answer "a. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool" Please decide yourself on your viewpoint. :(
Answer B is correct for Q: 17 ,as Tool has already been purchased now ,so everyone can use.
ReplyDeleteIf we look closely to section 6.3 Introducing a Tool into an Organization from the ISTQB Certified Tester Syllabus : "Test the product using a typical scenario(pilot project) ....then it is a part of Test tool selection process. So once the tool is selected and purchased from vendor,then Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool can use that.
Hello sk,
DeleteThanks for the explanation.
Sincerely,
I am still very confused. I only read "Introducing the selected tool into an organization starts with a pilot project" in Syllabus, where is "Test the product using a typical scenario(pilot project) ....". It is hard to say whether 'introducing the selected tool into an organization" is still during selection process or the tool has been purchased.
DeleteDear SK,
Delete"a software being purchased by an organization" doesn't automatically mean that anyone can use it in that organization (think of possible license and authority constraints).
Furthermore the question fails to state if the purchase was for implementation organizationwide of for pilot project. The question is therefore very tricky, as one would guess that knowledge of the phrase "pilot project" is tested here, however it is not the case. Actually a person attempting to answer this question in a correct way is better off having no idea of the relevant part of the syllabus.
Can anybody or if ISTQB helps me in giving explanation for Question 15? How do we solve such type of questions...I read through Book, but still have not got the exact idea to solve it.For few questions,am able to solve, but again for more such questions,am not sure how to analyse the problem in order to find a no.of Statement & Branch coverage? As much as i got to know we get 2-4 questions on coverages in exam, so to get explanation to this question becomes very important for me...Please help - Mukta
ReplyDeleteThis comment has been removed by the author.
ReplyDeleteHi Mukta, please consider following code as an example
ReplyDeletepublic int returnInput(int input, boolean condition1, boolean condition2, boolean condition3) {
int x = input;
int y = 0;
if (condition1)
x++;
if (condition2)
x--;
if (condition3)
y=x;
return y;
}
In order to execute every statment we need only one testcase which would set all conditions to true, every line of a code (statement) is touched.
shouldReturnInput(x, true, true, true) - 100% statement covered
But only half of branches are covered and only one path. So now let's describe what a branch is. You can visualize every "if-statment" as two branches
(true-branch and false-branch). So it can clearly be seen that the above testcase follows only "true-branches" of every "if-statement". Only 50% of
branches are covered.
In order to cover 100% of branches we would need to add following testcase:
shouldReturnInput(x, false, false, false) - with these two testcases we have 100% statements covered, 100% branches covered
Nevertheless there is still a concept of path coverage. In order to understand path coverage it is good to visualize the above code in a form of a binary tree
..........0
.......t.....f
....../.......\
...../.........\
....0...........0
...t.f.........t.f
../...\......./...\
.0.....0.....0.....0
t.f...t.f...t.f...t.f
As you probably see the above two testcases cover only two paths t-t-t and f-f-f while in fact there are 8 separate paths:
cond1-cond2-cond3
t -t -t - covered with testcase 1
t -t -f
t -f -t
t -f -f
f -t -t
f -t -f
f -f -t
f -f -f - covered with testcase 2
Hi Remigiusz Dudek, I'm still confused about the question 15 because i thought the answer was d. SC and DC = 2 My explanation is as follows.
ReplyDelete. pick up and read --------------------(statement) ,
. |
. Look at what is in televiosion--------(statement) ,
| ,
. If there is a program ,
. that you are interested in watching , , , , , , , , ,
. . . . . . . / \
. then switch the the television on Otherwise Continue reading the newspaper ,
. and watch the program , , , , , , , , , , , , , ,
. | , , ,
. | ,
. | ,
. If a crossword ,
/ \,
, ,
. complete ENd ,
The .(fullstop) and ,(comma) are the two paths i considered. I used the same logic for the similar questions 12,13 and 14 and got them correct. But this one i do not understand how decision is 3.Can someone please clarify me.
......0
Delete......0
....d1..d2
.....0..0
...d3 d4
0 0
The test case used two executge d2 can be used for d4 and likewise d1 for d3. SO there is only 2 DC right?? JUst another representation of my understanding.
Hi ,
ReplyDeletei have doubt on Q5 the answer as C but i thought it should be D . Because it asks for both valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries but in answers C 50000 is not the boundary value.
correct me If i am wrong.
Geetha
Hi Geetha,
Deletethe ans for Q5 is "C" only because in the question it is clearly mentioned that "only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries"
here in this, Valid boundaries will be- 10000 and 99999 and Valid equivalence classes will be- any Number Between 10000 to 99999 (her in the option "C" 50000 is given,which is also a valid class between the given Boundaries) where as in option "D" only Valid Boundaries are mentioned so Option "C" is appropriate ans for this.. i hope u understood
I have doubt on Q21. The given answer is (b) and what about answer (a).
ReplyDeleteThe test data preparation tools are used by developers also. Please confirm.
Can some one please explain how two statements test are arrived for Q14?
ReplyDeleteTest Case 1 : A = 3, B= 2 , D =5
DeleteTest Case 2 : A = 2 , B= 3 , D = 5
This comment has been removed by the author.
ReplyDeletequestion num 23
ReplyDeletewhat is black box measurement techniques ?
thanks Roman
Q22: Answer should be 'b'. Please confirm
ReplyDeleteQ23 : as per the syllabus black box design techniques all have an associated measurement techniques (4.4.1 -Types of Coverage section ') so the given answer is incorrect ? Please explain
ReplyDeleteThis comment has been removed by the author.
ReplyDeleteQuestion E27
ReplyDeleteAnswer is D, not C.
How can you verify something if you don't know expected result and have only actual?
Are you kidding?
There are so much error!
THERE ARE SO MUCH ERROR:
ReplyDelete