ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 33


1. It is an unfair test to perform stress testing at the same time you perform
load testing.
a. True
b. False


2.Testing error message fall under __________ category of testing.
a. Incremental Testing
b. Thread Testing
c. Documentation Testing
d. Stress Testing


3.The term “defect” is related to the term “fault” because a “fault” is a defect, which has not yet been identified.
a. True
b. False


4.What qualities must an individual possess to test effectively a software application.
a. Good Communication Skill
b. Good Error Guessing
c. Good Analytical Skill
d. All of the above


5.Defects are least costly as what stage of Development cycle.
a. Analysis and Design
b. Construction
c. Requirements
d. Implementation


6.QC is
a. Phase building activity
b. Intermediate activity
c. End of Phase activity
d. Design activity


7.________ is monitoring defects from the time of recording until satisfactory resolution has been determined.
a. Quality measurement
b. Defect measurement
c. Defect Tracking
d. None of the above


8. Most common cause of defects is
a. Failure to estimate
b. Failure to asses risks
c. Ambiguous or incomplete requirements
d. Weak communication


9. Verification activities during design stages are
a. Reviewing and Inspecting
b. Inspecting and Testing
c. Reviewing and Testing
d. Reviewing, Inspecting and Testing.


10. Decision to stop testing should be based upon
a. Successful use of specific test case design methodologies
b. A percentage of coverage for each coverage category
c. Rate of error detection falls below a specified threshold
d. All of the above


11. Testing, which is carried out using no recognized test case design
a. Failure Testing
b. Adhoc Testing
c. Exhaustive Testing
d. Empty test case Testing


12. A test case design technique for a component in which test cases
are designed to execute statements is called as?
a. State transition Testing
b. Static Testing
c. Transition testing
d. Statement testing


13. This testing is a mechanism that simulates problems in the original
environment so that an alternative-processing environment can be tested.
a. Disaster testing
b. Functional testing
c. Regression testing
d. Compliance Testing


14. Status Reports in Test Director can be generated using
a. Document Viewer
b. Document Generator
c. Document Tracker
d. None of the above


15.The following five tasks are needed to develop, use and maintain Test scripts.
Unit scripting
Pseudo concurrency scripting
Integration scripting
Regression scripting
Stress/Performance scripting


a.1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 5
d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5


16.Testing where the system is subjected to large number of idea.
a. System Testing
b. Volume Testing
c. Statistical Testing
d. Statement Testing


17.Integration testing where no incremental testing takes place prior to all the system’s components being combined to form the system.
a. System Testing
b. Component Testing
c. Incremental Testing
d. Big bang Testing


18.Recovery testing aims at verifying the system’s ability to recover from varying degrees of failure.
a. True
b. False


19.Which testing methods are used by end-users who actually test software before they use it?
a. Alpha and Beta Testing
b. White Box Testing
c. Black Box Testing
d. Trial and Error Testing


20.The testing attempts to violate those procedures, which should test the adequacy of the security procedures.
a. Disaster testing
b. Functional testing
c. Regression testing
d. Compliance testing


21. Which  of the following is NOT a standard related to testing?
 a.  IEEE829
 b.  IEEE610
 c.  BS7925-1
 d.  BS7925-2


22.which of the following is the component test standard?
 a. IEEE 829
 b. IEEE 610
 c. BS7925-1
 d. BS7925-2


23 which of the following statements are true?
 a. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.
 b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.
 c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix
 d. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.


24. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?
 a. Design based
 b. Big-bang
 c. Bottom-up
 d. Top-down


25. Which of the following is a black box design technique?
 a. statement testing
 b. equivalence partitioning
 c. error- guessing
 d. usability testing


26. A program with high cyclometic complexity  is almost likely to be:
 a. Large
 b. Small
 c. Difficult to write
 d. Difficult to test


27. Which of the following is a static test?
 a. code inspection
 b. coverage analysis
 c. usability assessment
 d. installation test


28. Which of the following is the odd one out?
 a. white box
 b. glass box
 c. structural
 d. functional


29. A program validates a numeric field as follows:
 values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected;
 which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?
 a. 10,11,21
 b.   3,20,21
 c.   3,10,22
 d. 10,21,22


30. Using  the same specifications as question 29, which of the following covers the MOST boundary values?
 a. 9,10,11,22
 b. 9,10,21,22
 c. 10,11,21,22
 d. 10,11,20,21


31.Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:
a)    to find faults in the software
b)    to prove that the software has no faults
c)    to give confidence in the software
d)    to find performance problems


32.Which expression best matches the following characteristics of the review processes:
1.    led by the author
 2.    undocumented
 3.    no management participation
 4.    led by a moderator or leader
 5.    uses entry and exit criteria


s)    inspection
 t)    peer review
 u)    informal review
 v)    walkthrough


a)    s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
 b)    s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
 c)    s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
 d)    s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u= 2, v = 3


33.Which of the following is NOT part of system testing?
a)    business process-based testing
 b)    performance, load and stress testing
 c)    usability testing
 d)    top-down integration testing


34.Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?
 a)    expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour
 b)    expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
 c)    expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
 d)    expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times


35.The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
a)    ISO/IEC 12207
 b)    BS 7925-1
 c)    ANSI/IEEE 829
 d)    ANSI/IEEE 729


36.The cost of fixing a fault:
 a)    is not important
 b)    increases the later a fault is found
 c)    decreases the later a fault is found
 d)    can never be determined


37.Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard?
 a)    what is not to be tested
 b)    test environment properties
 c)    quality plans
 d)    schedules and deadlines


38.Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing?
 a)    no, because they apply to development documentation
 b)    no, because they are normally applied before testing
 c)    yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
 d)    yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities


39.Which of the following is not part of performance testing?
 a)    measuring response times
 b)    recovery testing
 c)    simulating many users
 d)    generating many transactions


40.Error guessing is best used:
 a)    after more formal techniques have been applied
 b)    as the first approach to deriving test cases
 c)    by inexperienced testers
 d)    after the system has gone live



Answers:
Q.1-B

Q.2-C
Q.3-A
Q.4-D
Q.5-C
Q.6-C
Q.7-C
Q.8-C
Q.9-D
Q.10-D
Q.11-B
Q.12-D
Q.13-A
Q.14-B
Q.15-D
Q.16-B
Q.17-D
Q.18-A
Q.19-A
Q.20-D

Q.21-B

Q.22-D

Q.23-C

Q.24-A

Q.25-B

Q.26-D

Q.27-A

Q.28-D

Q.29-C

Q.30-B

Q.31-B

Q.32-A

Q.33-D

Q.34-A

Q.35-B

Q.36-B

Q.37-C

Q.38-C

Q.39-B

Q.40-A

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 32


1. What is not the primary data given by the tester in test execution
a. Total number of tests
b. Number of test cases written for change request
c. Number of test executed to date
d. Number of tests executed successfully to date

2. Do the current project results meet the performance requirements? Which
section of Project Status Report I should look for:
a. Vital Project Information
b. General Project Information
c. Project Activities Information
d. Essential Elements Information

3. Which is a section of Summary status report
a. Vital project information
b. Essential elements information
c. Project activities information
d.Time Line Information

4.Test Result data is
a. Test Transactions
b. Test events
c. Business objectives
d. Reviews

5.What types of efficiench can be evaluated during testing?
a. Software system
b. Testing
c. Development
d. A and C
e. A and B

6.Who is essentially responsible for the quality of a product?
a. Customer
b. QA Manager
c. Development Manager
d. Test Manager

7.What are the 3 costs that make up the Cost of Quality?
a. Prevention, Appraisal, Failure
b. Appraisal, Developement, Testing
c. Testing, Prevention, rework
d. Failure, Prevention, Testing

8.What are expected production costs?
a. labor, materials, and equipment
b. personnel, training, and rollout
c. training, testing, user-acceptance

9.Appraisal costs are:
a. Costs associated with preventing errors
b. Costs associated with detection of errors
c. Costs associated with defective products delivered to customers

10.An example of a Failure Cost is:
a. Training
b. Inspections
c. Rework

11. If you could build a 0 defect product, would there be any costs involved?
If yes, what costs?
a. Preventive costs, but they are minimally involved
b. No costs will be involved
c. Failure costs

12. How many Deming principles are there?
a. 10
b. 14
c. 5
d. 7

13. How many levels are in the CMM?
a. 18
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

14. The Pareto analysis is most effective for:
a) Ranking items by importance
b) Showing relationships between items Measuring the impact of identified items

15. What is COTS?
a. Commercial On-the-shelf software
b. Commercial off-the-shelf software
c. Common Offshore testing Software

16. What is the purpose of code coverage tools?
a. They are used to show the extent to which the logic in the program
was executed during testing.
b. They are used as an alternative to testing
c. They are used to compile the program

17.Four examples of test specific metrics.
a. Testing  Effort variation, Defect Density, Testing Efficiency, Requirements tested.
b. Inspection, review efficiency, Testing Effort variation, Defect Density
c. Test scalability, Defect deviation, Testing Efficiency, Schedule variation

18.Give one commonly recognized size measurement tool.
a. Effort analysis
b. LCO Analysis
c. LOC Analysis
d. Code Analysis

19.Give three components included in a system test report.
a. Description of Testing; resource requirement; and Recommendation
b. Testing requirements; defects; and usability
c. Description of test results and finding(defects); Summary(environment and references; and Recommendation)

20.Reviews is what category of cost of quality?
a. preventive
b. Appraisal
c. Failure

21.The largest cose of quality is from production failure
a. True
b. False

22. Defects are least costly to correct at what stage of the development cycle?
a. Requirements
b. Analysis and Design
c. Construction
d. Implementation

23. The purpose of software testing is to:
a. Demonstrate that the application works properly
b. Detect the defects
c. Validate the logical design

24. _________must be developed to describe when and how testing will
occur.
a. Test Strategy
b. Test Plan
c. Test Design
d. High Level document

25. It is difficult to create test scenarios for high-level risks
a. True
b. False

26. __________ testing assumes that the path of logic in a unit or program
is known.
a. Black Box testing
b. Performance Testing
c. White Box testing
d. Functional testing

27. _________ test is conducted at the developers site by a customer.
a. Beta
b. System
c. Alpha
d. None of the above

28. Juran is famous for
a. Quality Control
b. Working on Trend Analysis
c. Pareto
d. Fish Bone Diagram

29.Software testing activities should start
a. As soon as the code is written
b. During the design stage
c. When the requirements have been formally documented
d. As soon as possible in the development lifecycle

30.Non statistical tools are used in the
a. Work Practice process
b. Benchmarking process
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

31.Quality Function deploement(QFD) is a
a. Statistical tool
b. Non statistical tool
c. Development tool
d. None of the above

32.The sequence of the four Phases involved in Bench marking process is
a. Action, Planning, Integration, Analysis
b. Planning, Analysis, Integration, Action
c. Analysis, Planning, Integration, Action
d. Analysis, Action, Planning, Integration

33.Defect Density is calculated by
a. Total no. of Defects/Effort
b. Valid Defects/ Total no. of Defect
c. Invalid Defects/ Valid Defects
d. Valid Defects/ Effort

34.Effort Variation is calculated by
a. (Planned-Actual)/Actual
b. (Actual-Planned)/Actual
c. (Actual-Planned)/Planned
d. (Planned-Actully)/Planned

35.Percentage Rework is calculated by
a. (Review effort + Rework effort)/Actual Effort expended
b. (Review effort + Rework effort)/Actual Effort expended
c. Rework Effort/Planned Effort
d. Rework Effort/Actual Effort expanded

36. The ______________ is an application of process management and quality
improvement concepts to software development and maintenance.
a. Malcolm Baldridge
b. ISO 9000
c. SEI/CMM
d. QS14000

37. A quantitative measurement used to determine the test completion is
a. Defect measurement
b. Requirements coverage
c. Statistical Analysis

38. The categories of Error Oriented Techniques are
a. Statistical assessment and Error-based testing
b. Error-based testing and Fault based testing.
c. Fault based testing and Statistical assessment
d. Statistical assessment, Error-based testing and Fault based testing.

39. The following factors should be considered for the Test Tool selection
1.Test Phase
2.Test Objective
3.Test Technique
4.Test Deliverable
a. 1 & 2
b. 1,2,3 & 4
c. 2 & 3
d. 1,2 & 3

40. Equivalence partitioning consists of various activities:
a. Ensure that test cases test each input and output equivalence class
at least once
b. Identify all inputs and all outputs
c. Identify equivalence classes for each input
d. All of the above

Answers:
Q.1-B
Q.2-D
Q.3-D
Q.4-C
Q.5-E
Q.6-C
Q.7-A
Q.8-A
Q.9-B
Q.10-C
Q.11-A
Q.12-B
Q.13-D
Q.14-A
Q.15-B
Q.16-A
Q.17-A
Q.18-C
Q.19-C
Q.20-B
Q.21-A
Q.22-A
Q.23-A
Q.24-B
Q.25-A
Q.26-C
Q.27-C
Q.28-A
Q.29-D
Q.30-B
Q.31-B
Q.32-B
Q.33-A
Q.34-C
Q.35-D
Q.36-C
Q.37-B
Q.38-D
Q.39-B
Q.40-D