ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 22

Q. 1: Test planning has which of the following major tasks?
i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing.
ii. Determining the test approach (techniques,test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the teams involved in testing , testware)
iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements,architecture,design,interface)
iv. Determining the exit criteria.

A. i,ii,iv are true and iii is false

B. i,,iv are true and ii is false

C. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false

D. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

Q. 2: Deciding How much testing is enough should take into account :-

i. Level of Risk including Technical and Business product and project risk ii. Project constraints such as time and budget

iii. Size of Testing Team

iv. Size of the Development Team

A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false

B. i,,iv are true and ii is false

C. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false

D. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

Q. 3: Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing:

A. The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works.

B. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free.

C. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to

do.

D. Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.

Q. 4: Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage:

Read P Read Q

If p+q > 100 then

Print "Large" End if

If p > 50 then Print "pLarge" End if

A. Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2

B. Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2

C. Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2

D. Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2

Q. 5: Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle:

i. Hi-level design a Unit tests ii. Code b Acceptance tests
iii. Low-level design c System tests
iv. Business requirements d Integration tests

A. i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b

B. i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b

C. i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c

D. i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b

Q. 6: Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities?

i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered

ii. Defect report analysis.

iii. Finalizing and archiving testware.

iv. Analyzing lessons.

A. i , ii , iv are true and iii is false

B. i , ii , iii are true and iv is false

C. i , iii , iv are true and ii is false

D. All of above are true

Q. 7: Which of the following is NOT part of a high level test plan?

A. Functions not to be tested.

B. Environmental requirements.

C. Analysis of Specifications.

D. Entry and Exit criteria.

Q. 8: If a candidate is given an exam of 40 questions, should get 25 marks to pass

(61%) and should get 80% for distinction, what is equivalence class.

A. 23, 24, 25

B. 0, 12, 25

C. 30, 36, 39

D. 32,37,40

Q. 9: Which of the following statements is true of static analysis:

A. Compiling code is not a form of static analysis.

B. Static analysis need not be performed before imperative code is executed.

C. Static analysis can find faults that are hard to find with dynamic testing.

D. Extensive statistic analysis will not be needed if white- Box testing is to be performed.

Q. 10: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has $4000 of salary tax free. The next $1500 is taxed at 10% The next $28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40% Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?

A. $5800; $28000; $32000

B. $0; $200; $4200

C. $5200; $5500; $28000

D. $28001; $32000; $35000

Q. 11: Cost of the reviews will not include.

A. Review process itself

B. Metrics analysis

C. Tool support.

D. Process improvement.

Q. 12: Regression testing always involves

A. Testing whether a known software fault been fixed. B. Executing a large number of different tests.

C. Testing whether modifications have introduced adverse side effects.

D. Using a test automation tool.

Q. 13: Capture and replay facilities are least likely to be used to              

A. Performance testing

B. Recovery testing

C. GUI testing

D. User requirements.

Q. 14: Which tool will be used to test the flag memory leaks and unassigned pointers

A. Dynamic analysis tool

B. Static Analysis tool.

C. Maintenance tool.

D. Configuration tool.

Q. 15: Cyclomatic complexity is used to calculate

A. Number of independent paths in the basis set of a program

B. Number of binary decisions + 1

C. Number bound for the number of tests that must be conducted to ensure that all statements have been executed at least once

D. Number of branches and decisions

Q. 16: Which of the following is not included in Test Plan.

A. Features to be tested.

B. Environmental needs.

C. Suspension criteria.

D. Expected results.

Q. 17: Software quality is not relevant to               

A. Correctness

B. Usability

C. Viability

D. Reusability. 

Q. 18: Match the following:

 1. Test estimation
 2. Test control
 3. Test monitoring
 a. Measures of tracking process
 b. Effort required to perform activities
 c. Reallocation of resources

A. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a

B. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c

C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b

D. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c

Q. 19: When do you stop testing?

A. When the specified number of faults are found.

B. When the test completion criteria are met.

C. When all high and medium priority tests are complete.

D. When all statements have been executed

Q. 20: What is the smallest number of test cases required to Provide 100% branch coverage?

If(x>y) x=x+1;

else y=y+1;

while(x>y)

{

y=x*y; x=x+1;

}

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 21: Match the following.

1. Configuration identification
2. Configuration control
3. Status reporting
4. Configuration auditing
a. Maintains of CI’s in a library
b. Checks on the contents of the library
c. Function recording and tracking problems.
d. Requires the all CI’s and their versions in the system are known

A. 1-d, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a. B. 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b. C. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c. D. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d.

Q. 22: Integration testing in the large involves:

A. Testing the system when combined with other systems.

B. Testing a sub-system using stubs and drivers.

C. Testing a system with a large number of users.

D. Combing software components and testing them in one go.

Q. 23: One of the following is not a part of white box testing as per BS7925-II

standards.

A. Random testing

B. Data Flow testing.

C. Statement testing.

D. Syntax testing.

Q. 24: A piece of software has been given                what tests in the Following will you perform?

1) Test the areas most critical to business processes
2) Test the areas where faults will be maximum
3) Test the easiest functionalities

A. 1&2 are true and 3 is false.

B. 1,2&3 are true.

C. 1 is true, 2&3 are false.

D. 1&2 are false, 3 is true

Q. 25: Which of the following is a type of non-functional testing?

A. Usability testing.

B. Statement Coverage.

C. Dataflow testing.

D. Cause-effect graphing.

Q. 26: What type of testing will you perform on internet banking solution?

A. System integration

B. Functional testing

C. Non-functional testing.

D. Requirements testing

Q. 27: Which of the following are false?

A. Incidents should always be investigated and resolved.

B. Incidents occur when expected and actual results differ.

C. Incidents can be analyzed to assist in test process improvement.

D. An incident can be raised against documentation.

Q. 28: Testing is not done to             

A. Find faults

B. Improve quality

C. Check user friendliness.

D. Improve software accuracy

Q. 29: A field failure occurs when multiple users access a system. Which of the following is true?

A. This is an acceptable risk of a multi-user system.

B. Insufficient functional testing has been performed.

C. This indicates an important non-functional requirement was not specified and tested.

D. It is not possible to test against such events prior to release.

Q. 30: People who don’t participate in technical reviews

A. Analysts

B. Management

C. Developers

D. Testers

Q. 31: What is failure?

A. Deviation from expected result to actual result

B. Defect in the software.

C. Error in the program code. D. Fault in the system.

Q. 32: Exclusive use of white box testing in a test-phase will:

A. Ensure the test item is adequately tested.

B. Make the need for black-box testing redundant.

C. Run the risk that the requirements are not satisfied.

D. Suffices for the unit testing phase.

Q. 33: Which of the following is least important in test management?

A. Estimating test duration.

B. Incident Management.

C. Configuration Management.

D. De-bugging.

Q. 34: A standard for software testing terminology is:

A. IEEE 802.11

B. ISO 9001

C. BS 7925-1

D. BS 7925-2

Q. 35: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of User Acceptance Testing?

A. Use of automated test execution tools.

B. Testing performed by users.

C. Testing against acceptance test criteria.

D. Integration of system with user documentation.

Q. 36: Which of the following provides the biggest potential cost saving from use of

CAST?

A. Test management

B. Test design

C. Test planning

D. Test execution

Q. 37: What type of testing is done to supplement the rigorous testing?

A. Regression testing.

B. Integration testing.

C. Error Guessing

D. System testing.

Q. 38: To make a test effective it is most important that:

A. It is easy to execute.

B. It is designed to detect faults if present.

C. The expected outcome is specified before execution.

D. It is unlikely to delay progress.

Q. 39: Error guessing is:

A. An appropriate way of deriving system tests.

B. Only used if good requirements are not available.

C. Only used when good requirements are available.

D. The most appropriate way of deriving system tests.

Q. 40: Amount of testing performed will not depend on

A. Risks involved

B. Contractual requirements

C. Legal requirements

D. Test data.

 Answers:

Q.1-A
Q.2-C
Q.3-D
Q.4-C
Q.5-D
Q.6-C
Q.7-C
Q.8-D
Q.9-A
Q.10-A
Q.11-C
Q.12-C
Q.13-D
Q.14-A
Q.15-B
Q.16-D
Q.17-C
Q.18-A
Q.19-B
Q.20-B
Q.21-B
Q.22-A
Q.23-D
Q.24-A
Q.25-A
Q.26-C
Q.27-C
Q.28-D
Q.29-C
Q.30-B
Q.31-A
Q.32-C
Q.33-D
Q.34-C
Q.35-A
Q.36-D
Q.37-C
Q.38-C
Q.39-D
Q.40-D