ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 16

Q. 1: Which of the following combinations correctly describes a valid approach to component testing:

i) Functional testing of the component in isolation.

ii) Structure-based testing of the code without recording incidents.

iii) Automated tests that are run until the component passes. iv) Functional testing of the interfaces between modules.

A. i and ii.

B. I,  ii and iii

C. iii.

D. ii and iv

Q. 2: Which of the following is a purpose of the review planning phase?

A. Log defects.

B. Explain the documents to the participants.

C. Gather metrics.

D. Allocate the individual roles.

Q. 3: A defect arrival rate curve:

A. Shows the number of newly discovered defects per unit time

B. Shows the number of open defects per unit time.

C. Shows the cumulative total number of defects found up to this time.

D. Any of these, depending on the company.

Q. 4: Which is the best definition of complete testing:

A. You have discovered every bug in the program.

B. You have tested every statement, branch, and combination of branches in the program.

C. You have completed every test in the test plan.

D. You have reached the scheduled ship date.

Q. 5: Complete statement and branch coverage means:

A. That you have tested every statement in the program.

B. That you have tested every statement and every branch in the program.

C. That you have tested every IF statement in the program.

D. That you have tested every combination of values of IF statements in the program

Q. 6: There are several risks of managing your project's schedule with a statistical reliability model. These include (choose one or more of the following):

A. Testers spend more energy early in the product trying to find bugs than preparing to do the rest of the project's work more efficiently

B. Managers might not realize that the testing effort is ineffective, late in the project, because they expect a low rate of bug finding, so the low rate achieved doesn't alarm them.

C. It can increase the end-of-project pressure on testers to not find bugs, or to not report bugs.

D. All of the above

Q. 7: Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic testing are:

A. Deviations from standards,

B. Requirement defects,

C. Design defects,

D. Insufficient maintainability and incorrect interface specifications. E. All of the above.

Q. 8: Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have the same objective

A. Identifying defects.

B. Fixing defects.

C. A. and B

D. None of the above

Q. 9: We can achieve complete statement coverage but still miss bugs because:

A. The failure occurs only if you reach a statement taking the TRUE branch of an IF

statement, and you got to the statement with a test that passed through the FALSE branch.

B. The failure depends on the program's inability to handle specific data values, rather than on the program's flow of control.

C. We are not required to test code that customers are unlikely to execute.

D. All of the above

Q. 10: Measurement dysfunction is a problem because:

A. Even though the numbers you look at appear better, to achieve these numbers, people are doing other aspects of their work much less well.

B. We don't know how to measure a variable (our measurement is dysfunctional) and so we don't know how to interpret the result.

C. You are measuring the wrong thing and thus reaching the wrong conclusions.

D. All of the above.

Q. 11: Important consequences of the impossibility of complete testing are (Choose one or more answers):

A. We can never be certain that the program is bug free.

B. We have no definite stopping point for testing, which makes it easier for some managers to argue for very little testing.

C. We have no easy answer for what testing tasks should always be required, because every task takes time that could be spent on other high importance tasks.

D. All of the above.

Q. 12: Poor software characteristics are

A. Only Project risks

B. Only Product risks

C. Project risks and Product risks

D. Project risks or Product risks

Q. 13: System testing should investigate

A. Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements

B. Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements

C. Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements

D. Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements

Q. 14: Contract and regulation testing is a part of

 A. System testing

B. Acceptance testing

C. Integration testing

D. Smoke testing

Q. 15: Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal review

A. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick off

B. Planning, Individual preparation, Kick off, Rework

C. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Follow up

D. Planning, Individual preparation, Follow up, Kick off

Q. 16: Which is not the testing objectives

A. Finding defects

B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information

C. Preventing defects.

D. Debugging defects

Q. 17: Maintenance releases and technical assistance centers are examples of which of the following costs of quality?

A. External failure

B. Internal failure

C. Appraisal

D. Prevention

Q. 18: Which is not the project risks

A. Supplier issues

B. Organization factors

C. Technical issues

D. Error-prone software delivered

Q. 19: Bug life cycle

A. Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed

B. Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed

C. Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed

D. Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed

Q. 20: Who is responsible for document all the issues, problems and open point that were identified during the review meeting

A. Moderator

B. Scribe

C. Reviewers

D. Author

Q. 21: ‘X’ has given a data on a person age, which should be between 1 to 99. Using

BVA which is the appropriate one

A. 0,1,2,99

B. 1, 99, 100, 98

C. 0, 1, 99, 100

D. –1, 0, 1, 99

Q. 22: Which is not a testing principle

A. Early testing

B. Defect clustering

C. Pesticide paradox

D. Exhaustive testing

Q. 23: A project that is in the implementation phase is six weeks behind schedule.

The delivery date for the product is four months away. The project is not allowed to slip the delivery date or compromise on the quality standards established for his product. Which of the following actions would bring this project back on schedule?

A. Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been implemented.

B. Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.

C. Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work is recovered.

D. Hire more software quality assurance personnel.

Q. 24: The Testing will be performed by the people at client own locations

A. Alpha testing

B. Field testing

C. Performance testing

D. System testing

Q. 25: Which of the following is the standard for the Software product quality

A. ISO 1926

B. ISO 829

C. ISO 1012

D. ISO 1028

Q. 26: Which is not a black box testing technique

A. Equivalence partition

B. Decision tables

C. Transaction diagrams

D. Decision testing

Q. 27: Find the mismatch

A. Test data preparation tools – Manipulate Data bases

B. Test design tools – Generate test inputs

C. Requirement management tools – Enables individual tests to be traceable

D. Configuration management tools – Check for consistence

Q. 28: Use cases can be performed to test

A. Performance testing

B. Unit testing

C. Business scenarios

D. Static testing

Q. 29: Purpose of test design technique is

A. Identifying test conditions only, not Identifying test cases

B. Not Identifying test conditions, Identifying test cases only

C. Identifying test conditions and Identifying test cases

D. Identifying test conditions or Identifying test cases

Q. 30: One person has been dominating the current software process improvement meeting. Which of the following techniques should the facilitator use to bring other team members into the discussion?

A. Confront the person and ask that other team members be allowed to express their opinions.

B. Wait for the person to pause, acknowledge the person’ s opinion, and ask for someone else’ s opinion.

C. Switch the topic to an issue about which the person does not have a strong opinion.

D. Express an opinion that differs from the person’ s opinion in order to encourage others to express their ideas.

Q. 31: Stochastic testing using statistical information or operational profiles uses the following method

A. Heuristic testing approach

B. Methodical testing approach

C. Model based testing approach

D. Process or standard compliant testing approach

Q. 32: A software model that can’t be used in functional testing

A. Process flow model

B. State transaction model

C. Menu structure model

D. Plain language specification model

Q. 33: Arc testing is known as

A. Branch testing

B. Agile testing

C. Beta testing

D. Ad-hoc testing

Q. 34: The purpose of exit criteria is

A. Define when to stop testing

B. End of test level

C. When a set of tests has achieved a specific pre condition

D. All of the above

Q. 35: The ____________  technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage

A. Boundary value analysis

B. Equivalence partitioning

C. Decision table testing

D. State transition testing

Q. 36: The ____________ testing is performed at the developing organization’s site

A. Unit testing

B. Regression testing

C. Alpha testing

D. Integration testing

Q. 37: What is the main purpose of Informal review

A. Inexpensive way to get some benefit

B. Find defects

C. Learning, gaining understanding, effect finding

D. Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems

Q. 38: Which is not a Component testing

A. Check the memory leaks

B. Check the robustness

C. Check the branch coverage

D. Check the decision tables

Q. 39: The software engineer's role in tool selection is

A. To identify, evaluate, and rank tools, and recommend tools to management

B. To determine what kind of tool is needed, then find it and buy it

C. To initiate the tool search and present a case to management

D. To identify, evaluate and select the tools

Q. 40: Which is not the fundamental test process

A. Planning and control

B. Test closure activities

C. Analysis and design

D. None

Answers:

Q.1-B

Q.2-D

Q.3-A

Q.4-A

Q.5-B

Q.6-D

Q.7-E

Q.8-A

Q.9-B

Q.10-A

Q.11-D

Q.12-B

Q.13-C

Q.14-B

Q.15-C

Q.16-D

Q.17-A

Q.18-D

Q.19-A

Q.20-B

Q.21-C

Q.22-D

Q.23-A

Q.24-B

Q.25-A

Q.26-D

Q.27-D

Q.28-C

Q.29-C

Q.30-B

Q.31-C

Q.32-C

Q.33-A

Q.34-D

Q.35-B

Q.36-C

Q.37-A

Q.38-D

Q.39-A

Q.40-D