Q. 1: Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:
A. Equivalence partitioning
B. State transition testing
C. LCSAJ
D. Syntax testing
E. Boundary
value analysis
Q. 2: Expected
results are:
A. Only important
in system testing
B. Only used in component testing
C.
Never specified in advance
D. Most useful when specified in advance
E. Derived from the code
Q. 3: Beta testing is:
A. Performed by customers at their own site
B. Performed by customers at their software developer’s site
C.
Performed by an independent test
team
D. Useful to test bespoke software
E. Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle
Q. 4: Consider the following:
Pick up
and read the newspaper
Look at what is on television
If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the television on
and watch the program
Otherwise
Continue reading the newspaper
If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword
A. SC = 1 and
DC
= 1
B. SC = 1 and DC = 2
C.
SC
= 1 and DC = 3
D. SC = 2 and DC = 2
E. SC = 2 and DC = 3
Q.
5:
A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. Generating expected outputs
B. Replaying inputs according to a programmed script
C.
Comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
D. Recording test inputs
E. Reading test values from a data file
Q. 6: Consider the following statements about early test design:
i. Early
test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. Faults found during early
test design are more expensive to fix
iii. Early
test design can find faults
iv. Early test design can cause changes to
the
requirements
v. Early test design takes more effort
A. i, iii
& iv are true. Ii &
v are false
B. iii is true, I, ii, iv
& v are false
C. iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false
D.
i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false
E. i & iii are true, ii,
iv & v are false
Q. 7: Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement
and
branch coverage:
Read
P Read Q
IF P+Q >
100 THEN
Print "Large"
ENDIF
If P > 50 THEN Print "P Large" ENDIF
A. 1 test
for
statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
B. 1 test
for
statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
C.
1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
D. 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
E. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
Q. 8: The place to start
if you want a (new) test tool is:
A. Attend a tool exhibition
B. Invite a vendor to give a demo
C. Analyse your needs and requirements
D. Find out what your budget would be for the tool
E. Search the internet
Q. 9: Error guessing is best used
A. As the first approach to deriving test cases
B. After more formal techniques have been applied
C. By inexperienced testers
D. After the system has gone live
E. Only
by
end users
Q.
10:
Exit Criteria
may
consist of:
i. Thoroughness measures, such as coverage of code, functionality
or
risk
ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability
measures.
iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas
iv. Verifying the Test Environment.
A.
iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect.
B.
i,ii,iii is correct and iv
is incorrect
C. ii is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
D.
iii and iv are correct and i,ii are incorrect
Q. 11: One of the fields on a form contains a text box, which accepts alphabets in lower or upper case. Identify the invalid Equivalance class value.
A.
CLASS
B. cLASS
C. CLass
D.
CLa01ss
Q.
12:
The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following:
A. Explaining the objective
B. Fixing defects found typically done by author
C. Follow up
D. Individual Meeting preparations
Q.
13:
Peer Reviews are also called as :
A. Inspection
B. Walkthrough
C. Technical Review
D. Formal Review
Q.
14:
Validation involves which of the following
i. Helps to check the Quality of the Built Product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product. iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.
A. Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
B.
ii is true and
i,iii,iv are false
C.
i,ii,iii are true and
iv is false
D.
iii is true and i,ii,iv
are
false.
Q. 15: Success Factors for a review include:
i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective
ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively
iii. Management supports a good review process.
iv. There is an emphasis on learning and
process improvement.
A. ii,iii,iv are correct
and i is incorrect
B. iii , i ,
iv is correct and ii
is incorrect
C.
i , iii , iv , ii is in correct
D.
ii is correct
Q. 16: Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test
Progress:
i. Percentage of Test Case Execution
ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation.
iii. Defect
Information
e.g. defect density,
defects found and fixed
iv.
The
size of the testing Team and
skills of the engineers
A. iv is
correct
and i,ii,iii are incorrect
B. i,ii,iii are correct and iv
is incorrect
C. i,ii are correct
and iii,iv are incorrect
D.
i,iv are correct and ii
, iii are incorrect
Q. 17: Defects discovered by
static analysis tools include:
i. Variables that are never used.
ii. Security vulnerabilities.
iii. Programming Standard Violations
iv.
Uncalled functions and procedures
A. i ,
ii,iii,iv is correct
B.
iii ,is correct I,ii,iv are incorrect. C. i ,ii, iii
and iv are incorrect
D. iv, ii is correct
Q. 18: Which of the following is true about White and
Black Box Testing Technique:-
A. Equivalence partitioning, Decision Table and
Control flow are White box Testing
Techniques.
B. Equivalence partitioning, Boundary Value Analysis , Data Flow are Black Box Testing
Techniques.
C.
Equivalence partitioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing are black box Testing
Techniques.
D. Equivalence Partitioning, State Transition, Use Case Testing and
Decision Table are
White Box Testing Techniques.
Q. 19: Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?
A. State transition testing
B. LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump)
C. Syntax testing
D. Boundary value analysis
Q. 20: Features of White Box Testing Technique:
i. We use explicit knowledge of the internal workings
of the item being
tested to select the
test
data.
ii. Uses specific knowledge of programming code to examine outputs and assumes that the
tester knows the path of logic in a unit or a program.
iii. Checking for the performance of the application
iv. Also Checks for functionality.
A. i, ii
are true and
iii and iv are false
B.
iii is true and i,ii,
iv
are false
C. ii ,iii is true and
i,iv is false
D. iii and
iv
are true and i,ii are false
Q. 21. The Provision and
Management of a controlled library containing all the
configurations items is called as
A. Configuration
Control
B. Status Accounting
C. Configuration
Identification
D. Configuration Analysis
Q. 22: The selection of a test approach should consider the context:
i. Risk of Failure of the Project, hazards to
the
product and risks of product failure
to humans
ii. Skills and experience of the people in the proposed technique, tools and methods
iii. The objective of the testing endeavor and the mission of the testing team.
iv. The size of the testing Team
A. i,ii,iii,iv
are
true
B.
i,ii,iii are true and iv
is false.
C.
ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
D.
i,iv are true and ii,
iii are false.
Q. 23: Benefits of Independent Testing
A. Independent testers are much more qualified than Developers
B. Independent testers see other and different defects and
are
unbiased.
C. Independent Testers cannot identify defects.
D. Independent Testers can test better than developers
Q. 24: Minimum Test
Required for Statement Coverage:
Disc = 0
Order-qty = 0
Read Order-qty
If Order-qty >=20 then
Disc = 0.05
If Order-qty >=100 then
Disc =0.1
End if
End if
A. Statement coverage is 4
B. Statement coverage is 1
C. Statement coverage is 3
D. Statement Coverage is 2
Q. 25: Test
Conditions are derived from:
A. Specifications
B. Test Cases
C.
Test
Data
D. Test Design
Q. 26: Which of the following is the task of a Test
Lead
/ Leader.
i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the
project.
ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the information gathered during testing
iii. Decide what should be automated
, to what degree and how.
iv.
Create the Test Specifications
A. i, ii, iii is true and iv
is false
B. ii,iii,iv is true and i
is false
C.
i is
true and ii,iii,iv are false
D.
iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect
Q. 27: Impact Analysis helps to decide:
A. How much regression testing should be done.
B. Exit Criteria
C. How many more test
cases need to written.
D. Different Tools to perform
Regression Testing
Q.
28: Drivers are also known as:
i. Spade
ii. Test harness
iii. Scaffolding
A. i ,
ii
are true and iii is false
B. i ,
iii
are true and ii is false
C. ii ,
iii are true and i
is false
D. All of the above are true
Q.
29: Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?
A. Top
down
B. Big-bang
C. Bottom up
D. Functional incrementation.
Q.
30: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000
of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at
10% The next £28000
is taxed
at
22% Any further amount is taxed
at 40% Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
A.
£4800; £14000; £28000
B. £5200; £5500; £28000
C. £28001; £32000; £35000
D. £5800; £28000; £32000
Q.
31: In case of Large Systems :
A. Only
few
tests should be run
B. Testing should be on the basis of Risk
C. Only Good Test Cases should be executed.
D. Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed.
Q. 32: What is the expected result for each of the following test
cases?
Rule1
|
Rule2
|
Rule3
|
Rule4
|
|
Conditions
|
||||
Citibank Card
Member
|
Yes
|
Yes
|
No
|
No
|
Type of Room
|
Silver
|
Platinum
|
Silver
|
Platinum
|
Actions
|
||||
Offer upgrade
To Gold Luxury
|
Yes
|
No
|
No
|
No
|
Offer upgrade to Silver
|
N/A
|
Yes
|
N/A
|
No
|
A. Citibank card member, holding a Silver room
B. Non Citibank-member, holding a Platinum room
A. A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
B. A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B –
Offer upgrade to Gold.
C. A – Offer upgrade to Silver, B –
Offer upgrade to Silver.
D. A – Offer upgrade to Gold, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
Q. 33: Which of the following is not phase of the Fundamental Test Process?
A. Test Planning and Control
B. Test implementation and Execution
C.
Requirement Analysis
D. Evaluating Exit criteria and
reporting
Q. 34: The structure of an incident report is covered
in the Standard for Software Test
Documentation IEEE 829 and is called as:
A. Anomaly Report
B. Defect Report
C. Test Defect Report
D. Test Incident Report
Q. 35: Repeated Testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover
any
defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes in the software being tested or in another related or unrelated software component:
A. Re Testing
B. Confirmation Testing
C. Regression Testing
D. Negative Testing
Q.
36:
Consider the following state transition diagram of a
switch. Which of the
following represents an invalid state transition?
A. OFF to ON
B. ON to OFF
C. FAULT to ON
Q. 37: We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification as the input for writing:
A. User Acceptance Test Cases
B. Integration Level Test Cases
C. Unit Level Test Cases
D. Program
specifications
Q.
38: Regression
testing should be performed:
i. Every week
ii. After the software has changed
iii. As often as possible
iv. When the environment has changed
v. When the project manager says
A. i & ii are true, iii, iv
& v are false
B. ii, iii
& iv are true, i & v are false
C. ii & iv are true, i, iii
& v are false
D. ii is true, i, iii,
iv & v are false
Q.
39:
Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which phase:-
A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Planning and control
C. Test Implementation and execution
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Q. 40: Which of the following has highest level of independence in which test
cases are:
A. Designed by persons who
write the software under test
B. Designed by a person from a different section
C. Designed by a person from a different organization
D. Designed by another person
Answers:
Q.1-C
Q.2-D
Q.3-A
Q.4-E
Q.5-A
Q.6-A
Q.7-B
Q.8-C
Q.9-B
Q.10-B
Q.11-D
Q.12-A
Q.13-C
Q.14-B
Q.15-A
Q.16-B
Q.17-A
Q.18-C
Q.19-B
Q.20-A
Q.21-A
Q.22-B
Q.23-B
Q.24-B
Q.25-A
Q.26-A
Q.27-A
Q.28-C
Q.29-B
Q.30-D
Q.31-B
Q.32-D
Q.33-C
Q.34-A
Q.35-C
Q.36-C
Q.37-A
Q.38-C
Q.39-A
Q.40-C
Q.2-D
Q.3-A
Q.4-E
Q.5-A
Q.6-A
Q.7-B
Q.8-C
Q.9-B
Q.10-B
Q.11-D
Q.12-A
Q.13-C
Q.14-B
Q.15-A
Q.16-B
Q.17-A
Q.18-C
Q.19-B
Q.20-A
Q.21-A
Q.22-B
Q.23-B
Q.24-B
Q.25-A
Q.26-A
Q.27-A
Q.28-C
Q.29-B
Q.30-D
Q.31-B
Q.32-D
Q.33-C
Q.34-A
Q.35-C
Q.36-C
Q.37-A
Q.38-C
Q.39-A
Q.40-C
Q21, has C and D both identical answers :)
ReplyDeleteHello Egita,
DeleteThanks for pointing.
The options are altered.
Sincerely.
Can Anybody explain me how the decision coverage is 3 for Q.4
ReplyDeleteHi Arjun
Deletehere are all scenarios that make 100% decision coverage:
1. there is interesting program in tv
2. there is no interesting program but there is a crossword
3. there is neither interesting program nor crossword in
There is a wrong answer in Q.34 - it should be d), according to:
ReplyDeletehttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IEEE_829
For Q.34 according to http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IEEE_829 the correct answer is a) as it is here.
ReplyDeleteI think thQ. 26: there is no correct answer. To my knowledge the correct answers are only ii and iii according to the ISTQB syllabus. definitely iv is out because it's a tester's job. i is not specifies in the the syllabus as such. correct me if i'm wrong.
ReplyDeleteWhich of the following is the task of a Test Lead / Leader.
i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the information gathered during testing
iii. Decide what should be automated , to what degree and how.
iv. Create the Test Specifications
A. i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
B. ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
C. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
D. iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect
I disagree with the given answer and with you. The correct answer is (b).
DeleteTaken from ISTQB Syllabus, section 5.1.2, under the 'Test Leader' responsibilities:
- Initiate the specification, preparation, implementation and execution of tests... this matches statement 4. Initiate and create are the same. (while where you wrote it is a tester duty, is incorrect. Tester is assessing specifications, assess is not create, assess is evaluating).
- Decide what should be automated, to what degree, and how, this matches statement 3
- Write test summary reports...this matches statement 2.
To summary my point, 2,3 and 4 are valid tasks of a test leader, and statement 1 is incorrect.
The correct answer therefor is 'B'.