ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 24

Q. 1: Integration testing has following characteristics

I. It can be done in incremental manner

II. It is always done after system testing

III. It includes functional tests

IV. It includes non-functional tests

A. I, II and III are correct

B. I is correct

C. I, III and IV are correct

Q. 2: Which of the following activities differentiate a walkthrough from a formal review?

A. A walkthrough does not follow a defined process

B. For a walkthrough individual preparation by the reviewers is optional

C. A walkthrough requires meeting

D. A walkthrough finds the causes of failures, while formal review finds the failures

Q. 3: Why is testing necessary?

A. Because testing is good method to make there are not defects in the software

B. Because verification and validation are not enough to get to know the quality of the software

C. Because testing measures the quality of the software system and helps to increase the quality

D. Because testing finds more defects than reviews and inspections.

E. I, II and IV are correct

Q. 4: In foundation level syllabus you will find the main basic principles of testing. Which of the following sentences describes one of these basic principles?

A. Complete testing of software is attainable if you have enough resources and test tools

B. With automated testing you can make statements with more confidence about the quality of a product than with manual testing

C. For a software system, it is not possible, under normal conditions, to test all input and output combinations.

D. A goal of testing is to show that the software is defect free.

Q. 5: Which of the following is true

A. Testing is the same as quality assurance

B. Testing is a part of quality assurance

C. Testing is not a part of quality assurance

D. Testing is same as debugging

Q. 6: This part of a program is given:

WHILE (condition A)

Do B

END WHILE

How many decisions should be tested in this code in order to achieve 100% decision coverage?

A. 2

B. Indefinite

C. 1

D. 4

Q. 7: In a flight reservation system, the number of available seats in each plane model is an input. A plane may have any positive number of available seats, up to the given capacity of the plane. Using Boundary Value analysis, a list of available – seat values were generated. Which of the following lists is correct?

A. 1, 2, capacity -1, capacity, capacity plus 1

B. 0, 1, capacity, capacity plus 1

C. 0, 1, 2, capacity plus 1, a very large number

D. 0, 1, 10, 100, capacity, capacity plus one

Q. 8: Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem: An integer field shall contain values from and including 1 to and including 15

A. Less than 1, 1 through 15, more than 15

B. Negative numbers, 1 through 15, above 15

C. Less than 1, 1 through 14, more than 15

D. Less than 0, 1 through 14, 15 and more

Q. 9: Which of the following is correct about static analysis tools

A. They help you find defects rather than failures

B. They are used by developers only

C. They require compilation of code

D. They are useful only for regulated industries

Q. 10: Which of the following is most often considered as components interface bug?

A. For two components exchanging data, one component used metric units, the other one used British units

B. The system is difficult to use due to a too complicated terminal input structure

C. The messages for user input errors are misleading and not helpful for understanding the input error cause

D. Under high load, the system does not provide enough open ports to connect to

Q. 11: Which of the following is correct about static analysis tools?

A. Static analysis tools are used only by developers

B. Compilers may offer some support for static analysis

C. Static analysis tools help find failures rather than defects

D. Static analysis tools require execution of the code to analyze the coverage

Q. 12: Which of the following list contains only non-functional tests?

A. Interoperability (compatibility) testing, reliability testing, performance testing

B. System testing, performance testing

C. Load testing, stress testing, component testing, portability testing

D. Testing various configurations, beta testing, load testing

Q. 13: Which set of metrics can be used for monitoring of the test execution?

A. Number of detected defects, testing cost;

B. Number of residual defects in the test object.

C. Percentage of completed tasks in the preparation of test environment; test cases

prepared

D. Number of test cases run / not run; test cases passed / failed

Q. 14: What test items should be put under configuration management?

A. The test object, the test material and the test environment

B. The problem reports and the test material

C. Only the test object. The test cases need to be adapted during agile testing

D. The test object and the test material

Q. 15: This part of a program is given:

WHILE (condition A)

Do B

END WHILE

How many paths should be tested in this code in order to achieve 100% path coverage?

A. One

B. Indefinite

C. Two

D. Four

Q. 16: What is the purpose of test exit criteria in the test plan?

A. To specify when to stop the testing activity

B. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs

C. To ensure that the test case specification is complete

D. To know when a specific test has finished its execution

Q. 17:If a program is tested and 100% condition coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage criteria is then guaranteed to be achieved?

A. 100% branch coverage

B. 100% condition coverage and 100% statement coverage

C. Equivalence class and boundary value coverage

D. No other white box coverage criterion is guaranteed to be fulfilled 100%

Q. 18: Which of the following can be root cause of a bug in a software product?

(I) The project had incomplete procedures for configuration management.

(II) The time schedule to develop a certain component was cut.

(III) the specification was unclear

(IV) Use of the code standard was not followed up

(V) The testers were not certified

A. (I) and (II) are correct

B. (I) through (IV) are correct

C. (III) through (V) are correct

D. (I), (II) and (IV) are correct

Q. 19: The following list contains risks that have been identified for a software product to be developed. Which of these risks is an example of a product risk?

A. Not enough qualified testers to complete the planned tests

B. Software delivery is behind schedule

C. Threat to a patient’s life

D. 3rd party supplier does not supply as stipulated

Q. 20: Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Static analysis tools produce statistics during program execution

B. Configuration management systems allow us to provide accurate defect statistics of different configurations

C. Stress testing tools examine the behavior of the test object at or beyond full load

D. Performance measurement tools can be used in all phases of software life-cycle

Q. 21: Which of the following project inputs influence testing?

(I) Contractual requirements

(II) Legal requirements(III) Industry standards

(IV) Application risk

(V) Project size

A. (I) through (III) are correct

B. All alternatives are correct

C. (II) and (V) are correct

D. (I), (III) and (V) are correct

Q. 22: A test engineer is testing a Video Player (VCR), and logs the following report:

Title: Fast Forward stops after 2 minutes. It happens every time Expected result: Fast forward continues till the end of the tape Severity: High

Priority: Urgent

What important information did the engineer leave out?

A. Identification (Software and hardware) of the VCR

B. Actual result

C. History of the report

D. Ideas for the test case improvement

Q. 23: Maintenance testing is:

A. Testing management

B. Synonym of testing the quality of service

C. Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of existing software

D. Testing the level of maintenance by the vendor

Q. 24: Why is incremental integration preferred over "big bang" integration?

A. Because incremental integration has better early defects screening and isolation ability

B. Because "big bang" integration is suitable only for real time applications

C. Incremental integration is preferred over "Big Bang Integration" only for "bottom up"

development model

D. Because incremental integration can compensate for weak and inadequate component testing

Q. 25: V-Model is:

A. A software development model that illustrates how testing activities integrate with software development phases

B. A software life-cycle model that is not relevant for testing

C. The official software development and testing life-cycle model of ISTQB

D. A testing life cycle model including unit, integration, system and acceptance phases

Q. 26: Which of the following items need not to be given in an incident report?

A. The version number of the test object

B. Test data and used environment

C. Identification of the test case that failed

D. The location and instructions on how to correct the fault

Q. 27: Test data planning essentially includes

A. Network

B. Operational Model

C. Boundary value analysis

D. Test Procedure Planning

Q. 28: Acceptance testing means

A. Testing performed on a single stand – alone module or unit of code

B. Testing after changes have been made to ensure that no unwanted changes were introduced

C. Testing to ensure that the system meets the needs of the organization and end user.

D. Users test the application in the developers environment

Q. 29: The                testing should include operational tests of the new environment as well as of the changed software

A. System Testing

B. Integration testing

C. Component testing

D. Maintenance testing

Q. 30: A risk-based approach to testing provides proactive opportunities to reduce the levels of product risk, starting in the initial stages of a project

A. True

B. False

Q. 31: Functional testing is mostly

A. Validation techniques

B. Verification techniques

C. Both of the above

D. None of the above

Q. 32: Branch Coverage

A. Another name for decision coverage

B. Another name for all-edges coverage

C. Another name for basic path coverage

D. All the above

Q. 33: The                    Is the activity where general testing objectives are transformed into tangible test conditions and test designs

A. Testing Planning

B. Test Control

C. Test analysis and design

D. Test implementation

Q. 34: Integration testing where no incremental testing takes place prior to all the system’s components being combined to form the system.

A. System testing

B. Component Testing

C. Incremental Testing

D. Big bang testing

Q. 35: A test case design technique for a component in which test cases are designed to execute statements is called as?

A. State transition Testing

B. Static Testing

C. Transition testing

D. Statement testing

Q. 36: Who should have technical and Business background.

A. Moderator

B. Author

C. Reviewer

D. Recorder

Q. 37: A test plan defines

A. What is selected for testing

B. Objectives and results

C. Expected results

D. Targets and misses

Q. 38: Component integration testing can be done

A. Before Integration testing

B. After unit testing

C. After component testing

D. After system testing

Q. 39: Test basis documentation is analyzed in which phase of testing

A. Test Analysis

B. Test Design

C. Test Execution

D. Test Planning

Q. 40: Which one is not the task of test leader?

A. Coordinate the test strategy and plan with project managers and others

B. Decide about the implementation of the test environment

C. Write test summary reports

D. Review and contribute to test plans

Answers:

Q.1-C
Q.2-B
Q.3-C
Q.4-C
Q.5-B
Q.6-A
Q.7-B
Q.8-A
Q.9-A
Q.10-A
Q.11-B
Q.12-C
Q.13-D
Q.14-A
Q.15-C
Q.16-A
Q.17-B
Q.18-B
Q.19-C
Q.20-C
Q.21-B
Q.22-A
Q.23-C
Q.24-A
Q.25-A
Q.26-D
Q.27-D
Q.28-C
Q.29-D
Q.30-A
Q.31-A
Q.32-A
Q.33-C
Q.34-D
Q.35-D
Q.36-C
Q.37-B
Q.38-C
Q.39-A
Q.40-D