ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 25

Q. 1: if (condition1 && (condition2 function1()))

statement1;

else statement2;

A. Decision coverage

B. Condition coverage

C. Statement coverage

D. Path Coverage

Q. 2:                      reviews are often held with just the programmer who wrote the code and one or two other programmers or testers.

A. Formal Reviews

B. Peer Reviews

C. Semi-Formal Reviews

D. All of the above

Q. 3: In                    testing test cases i.e input to the software are created based on the specifications languages

A. State Transition Testing

B. Random Testing

C. Syntax Testing

D. Penetration testing

Q. 4: White Box Testing

A. Same as glass box testing

B. Same as clear box testing

C. Both A. and B.

D. None of the above.

Q. 5: Verification activities during design stages are

A. Reviewing and Inspecting

B. Inspecting and Testing

C. Reviewing and Testing

D. Reviewing, Inspecting and Testing.

Q. 6: Equivalence partitioning consists of various activities:

A. Ensure that test cases test each input and output equivalence class at least once

B. Identify all inputs and all outputs

C. Identify equivalence classes for each input

D. All of the above

Q. 7: Static Analysis

A. Same as static testing

B. Done by the developers

C. Both A. and B

D. None of the above

Q. 8: Size of a project is defined in terms of all the following except

A. Person days

B. Person hours

C. Calendar months

D. None of the above

Q. 9: Testing responsibilities:

Tester 1 – Verify that the program is able to display images clearly on all 10 of the monitors in the lab

Tester 2 - Make sure the program instructions are easy to use Security concerns are important for which type of applications

Tester 3 – Verify that the calculation module works correctly by using both scripts and ad hoc testing. Which term is used to refer to the testing that is performed by

Tester 3 in the above scenario?

A. Unit testing

B. Algorithm specific testing

C. Compatibility testing

D. Black box testing

Q. 10: Objective of review meeting is

A. To identify problems with design

B. To solve the problems with design

C. Both A. and B

D. None of the above.

Q. 11: QC is

A. Phase building activity

B. Intermediate activity

C. End of Phase activity

D. Design activity

Q. 12: Which tool store information about versions and builds of software and testware

A. Test Management tool

B. Requirements management tool

C. Configuration management tool

D. Static analysis too;

Q. 13: Testing Process comprised of

A. Test Plan and Test Cases

B. Test log and Test Status

C. Defect Tracking

D. All of the above

Q. 14: Preparing and automating test cases before coding is called

A. Test first approach

B. Test-driven development

C. Both A. & B.

D. None of the above

Q. 15: Which one is not characteristic of test management tool?

A. Support for the management of tests and the testing activities carried out

B. Interfaces to test execution tools

C. Quantitative analysis related to tests

D. Check for consistency and undefined requirements

E. None of the above

Q. 16: Code Walkthrough

A. Type of dynamic testing

B. Type of static testing

C. Neither dynamic nor static

D. Performed by the testing team

Q. 17: Risk analysis talks about

A. The data required for testing, the infrastructure requirements to manage the data as well as the methods for preparing test data, requirements, converters and sources

B. Details what types of tests must be conducted, what stages of testing are required and outlines the sequence and timing of tests

C. A testing goal. It is a statement of what the tester is expected to accomplish or validate during a testing activity. These guide the development of test cases and procedures

D. None of the above

Q. 18: What are the 2 major components taken into consideration with risk analysis?

A. The probability the negative event will occur

B. The potential loss or impact associated with the event

C. Both A. and B.

D. Neither A. nor B.

Q. 19: If the application is complex, but NOT data intensive and is to be tested on one configuration and 2 rounds, the easiest method to test is

A. Manual testing

B. Automation testing

C. Both

D. None

Q. 20: Functional tests can be performed at all test levels

A. True

B. False

Q. 21: Structural Testing

A. Same as black box testing

B. Same as white box testing

C. Same as functional testing

D. None of the above.

Q. 22: In formal review, Rework: fixing defects found typically done by                   

A. Moderator

B. Author

C. Reviewer

D. Recorder

Q. 23: The                    may facilitate the testing of components or part of a system by simulation the environment in which the test object will run

A. Test Design tool

B. Test data preparation tool

C. Test execution tool

D. Test harness

E. None of the above

Q. 24: Regression testing mainly helps in

A. Re-testing fixed defects

B. Checking for side-effects of fixes

C. Checking the core gaps

D. Ensuring high level sanity

Q. 25: Review is one of the methods of V&V. The other methods are

A. Inspection

B. Walkthrough

C. Testing

D. All of the above

Q. 26: Which review is inexpensive

A. Informal Review

B. Walkthrough

C. Technical review

D. Inspection

Q. 27: Following are some of the testing risks

A. Budget, Test environment

B. Budget, Number of qualified test resources

C. Budget, Number of qualified test resources, Test environment

D. None of the above

Q. 28: Random Testing

A. Program is tested randomly sampling the input.

B. A black-box testing technique

C. Both A. and B.

D. None of the above.

Q. 29: Black-box testing technique is also called as structure based technique

A. True

B. False

Q. 30: Reliability, usability, efficiency are

A. Functional characteristics

B. Nonfunctional characteristics

C. Both A. & B.

D. None of the above

Q. 31: Test Plan

A. Road map for testing

B. Tells about the actual results and expected results

C. Both a and b

D. None of the above

Q. 32: User Acceptance Testing

A. Same as Alpha Testing

B. Same as Beta Testing

C. Combination of Alpha and Beta Testing

D. None of the above

Q. 33: Path coverage includes

A. Statement coverage

B. Condition coverage

C. Decision coverage

D. None of these

Q. 34: Which testing technique do you prefer for the following situations?

1. Severe time pressure

2. Inadequate specification

A. Decision testing

B. Error guessing

C. Statement testing

D. Exploratory testing

Q. 35: Recovery testing is a system test that forces the software to fail and verifies that data recovery is properly performed. The following should be checked for correctness

1. Re-initialization

2. Restart

3. Data Recovery

4. Check Point Mechanism

A. 1 and 2

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 1, 2, 3 and 4

D. 2 and 4

Q. 36: Data flow analysis studies:

A. Possible communications bottlenecks in a program.

B. The rate of change of data values as a program executes.

C. The use of data on paths through the code.

D. The intrinsic complexity of the code.

Q. 37: Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?

A. Statement testing

B. Path testing

C. Data flow testing

D. State transition testing

Q. 38: Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?

A. It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.

B. It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.

C. It reduces defect multiplication.

D. It allows testers to become involved early in the project.

Q. 39: Which of the following is false?

A. In a system two different failures may have different severities.

B. A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.

C. A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.

D. Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behavior.

Q. 40: Alpha testing is:

A. Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.

B. The first testing that is performed.

C. Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.

D. Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.

Answer:

Q.1-B
Q.2-B
Q.3-C
Q.4-A
Q.5-A
Q.6-A
Q.7-C
Q.8-C
Q.9-D
Q.10-C
Q.11-C
Q.12-C
Q.13-D
Q.14-C
Q.15-D
Q.16-B
Q.17-B
Q.18-C
Q.19-A
Q.20-A
Q.21-B
Q.22-B
Q.23-D
Q.24-B
Q.25-D
Q.26-A
Q.27-B
Q.28-A
Q.29-B
Q.30-B
Q.31-A
Q.32-C
Q.33-D
Q.34-D
Q.35-C
Q.36-C
Q.37-D
Q.38-C
Q.39-B
Q.40-C