CSTE Sample Paper - 3

CSTE Sample  Practice Papers -3


Objective Questions:

1. A question on fit components. Which of the following contributes to fit.

a. Data b. Structure c. People d. Rule e. All of the above

2. Reliability, timeliness, consistency are included in which component of fit

a. Data b. Structure c. People d. Rule


3. Who will develop the test process for software development using new technology?

a. Management b. Project team c. Auditor d. Tester and few more options

4. Which of the following are relatively complete acceptance criteria?

a. Performance should increase b. Response time should be with in 10 sec Few more statements.

5. One question was on "Experienced people can be used as a tool for estimating the cost- Budgeting"

6. The communication type which is rarely emphasized

a. Listening Few more options...

7. There were 2 questions on maturity level e.g which level enforces control for technology.

8. There were 3 question on standard, policy and procedure.

9. Which of the following model has these steps .. event identification , risk assessment, risk response

a. ERM b. COSO internal control framework c. CobiT model

10. Utilize the computer resources to perform their work.. belong to which type of activity specified below

a. Interface b. Development c. Computer operation

11. Obligations of both contractual parties should be spelled out in detail in which part of the contract?

a. What b. Who c. When d. How

12. There was a question on "when the contracted software will be completed"

13. Test planning activity which includes starting and end time for each test milestone.

a. Budgeting b. Scheduling c. Estimation d. Staffing


Subjective Questions:

1. There are many factors like maintainability and reliability among softwares. Give 5 most important software quality factors that u would mention for testing a web based testing?

2. Create a Test plan for a simple project not a complex project?

3. Write a standard template for test plan, test script, Status report of a project?

4. Design a screen which will show the fields necessary for a defect description? Diagram a defect reporting tool screen and label what all things you would need to mention to log a defect?

5. Question related to use-case like guidelines for writing use case for customer?

6. Draw a control chart and explain how it can be used to see that the testing process is in control?

7. Difference between system test and acceptance test?

8. Aspects of computer software that should be observed during the demonstration of COTS software?

9. Define unit, integration, system, regression, acceptance testing and explain what would you recommend for the new independent test team formed. Previously in the organization, testing was being performed by software development team?

10. Explain any 4 factors for preventive controls?

11. Question on Security Testing technique. What tests you would include in the test plan for testing security with minimal knowledge about security testing?

12. Risks involved in testing wireless technology and how will u develop controls on it to gain confidence about the wireless technology used.

13. Give Measurements for
a] Test Effectiveness and b] Test Efficiency

14. Your Company is about to roll out an E-Commerce application. It is not possible to test the application on all types of browsers on all platforms and operating systems. What steps would you take in the testing environment to reduce the business risks and commercial risks?

15. Developing compatibility and motivation with a test team helps assure effective testing. List at least four guidelines you would follow to develop compatibility and motivation within your test team?

16. In a development project Test planning, resource allocation , test scripting is also completed. Testing is being executed. At this stage if there is a major change in requirement, what will be the tester’s role here (actions in response to the changes) .- The question is already asked in one of the previous year papers .

17. There is a delay of 5 days in the development project. How will the tester handle the testing activities, without changing on resources, working time, …. - The question is already asked in one of the previous year papers.

18. Explanation on total number of defects found Vs defects corrected using Graph.

19. Explain and diagram report which will be used for reporting uncorrected and corrected defects to the development team?

20. What is control chart and explain?

CSTE Sample Paper - 2


CSTE Sample  Practice Papers -2


Objective Questions:
 
1. Which communication skill will be neglected by most
a. Reading
b. Listening
c. Writing

2. Therapeutic listening is
a. Sympathetic listening
b. Listening to pieces of information…



3. Which model demonstrates relation between 2 or more parameters of effort, duration or resource?
a. Cost
b. Constraint
c. Function Point

4. In which model expertise can be used to estimate cost
a. Top-Down
b. Expert Judgment
c. Bottom-Up

5. Two objective questions on responsibility like who is responsible in issuing IT policy, work policy etc. 

6. Fit for use is
a. Transcendent
b. Product Based
c. User Based
d. Value Based

7. Re-Use of data is done in which type of testing (Similar type 2 questions on retesting and regression testing)
a. Capture/Play back
b. System Testing
c. Regression Testing
d. Integration Testing

8. one question each on configuration management / Change Management / Version Control.

9. In Acceptance testing, which data is used.
a. Test Cases
b. Use Case
c. Test Plan

10. In four components of FIT, reliability is included in (Similar type 2 qs)
a. Data
b. People
c. Structure
d. Rules

11. Obligations of both contractual parties should be spelled out in
a. What is done
b. Who does it
c. When it is done
d. How it is done

12. Dates on which Obligations need to be filled out should be specified in
a. What is done
b. Who does it
c. When it is done
d. How it is done

13. Two questions on Internal Auditor and Internal Control responsibilities

14. One question on ERM model 

15. One question on Control Frame Work Model 

16. Two questions on CMM 5 levels of maturity (Like in which level controls are implemented).

Subjective Questions: 

  1. You gave the software for independent testers. You are responsible for Unit, Integration, System and Acceptance testing. Explain about each testing methods and tell which testing can be given to Independent Testing and Which for development team.  
  2. Tell about any 3 tools and vendor of the tools.
  3. One question on Optimum testing.
  4. You developed Risk Plan, Test Plan, Test Scripts. You are doing testing. At this point you got major requirements change. What changes are required to in-corporate these changes in your plan. 
  5. Explain about Complexity Measures, Data Flow Analysis, Symbolic Execution
  6. Acceptance Test Plan for “Inventory Control Software” contents and explanation.
  7. What are CSFs. What are the CSFs that u ll look for in a contactor delivered software. Define them. 
  8. Security Vulnerabilities for e-comm application. 
  9. E-commerce project is newly developed in your organization. You are not able to test all types of Operating Systems and Browsers. Prepare mitigation plan.
  10. Explain V-Model.
  11. Reliability and maintainability are certain Quality factors given explicitly in the requirements. If so, list a few other QFs for a web based project and write the rationale for selecting the same.
  12. 5 important things you consider for writing test plan, why do you think they are important. 
  13. The UI for a defect management tool.
  14. Difference between Acceptance and System Testing.
  15. Mention and write on a few techniques for the defect prevention - internal control testing.  
  16. 3 important issues for wireless technology.
  17. One question on Pareto Charts - Like gave a scenario for no. of critical, minor and major bugs and no. of days to fix the bugs. Analyze the scenario.
  18. What are important Quality factors that u will test for in a multiple workstation scenario that u will not do in a single work station scenario.
  19. The contents of a system test report.
  20. List 5 test metrics and explain how u can use them.
  21. Which steps in a testing process are defect prone- explain why?
  22. What according to you are the important docs that u would refer when u r testing a change that has been made in a project that has been released.(i.e. operational) 
  23. What do u mean by defect expectation. How can u use it for improving the testing process.
  24. Mention three techniques for unit testing. State an objective for unit testing, Based on those, how will ensure that the unit testing has complied to the expectations.
  25. Steps involved in testing for security
  26. What are the important things that u ll look for during a demo of a contractor software.
  27. How do u use control charts for controlling the testing process. Explain control charts.
  28. If the code to be delivered will be delivered after a week but no change in release date, how will you as test manager plan yr test. (a question that has appeared in lot of previous question papers. the phrasing is wrong here. but the same)
  29. As a test manager - test skill set relates question.

CSTE Sample Paper - 1

CSTE Sample  Practice Papers - 1


Objective Paper 1:
Q1. Who defined the standards?
A) ISO
B) QAI
Ans. ISO 

Q2. Juran is famous for
A) Quality Control
B) Management
Ans. Quality Control 

Q3. Which one is not Statistical Tool?
A) Cause & effect Graphing
B) Stratification
C) Run Chart
D) Regression Analysis
Ans. Cause & effect Graphing 

Q4. Histogram refers to
A) Bar Chart
B) Run Chart
C) Pareto
Ans. Bar Chart
 
Q5. Who are there in External IT TEAM?
A) Non Developer
B) Customer/ User

Q6. Which one is not Structural Testing?
A) Regression
B) Parallel
c) Acceptance
d) Stress
Ans. Acceptance 

Q7. Who is not part of Inspection?
A) Prj Manager
B) Author
c) Moderator
d) Reader
e) Inspetor
Ans. Prj Manager 

Q8. Tester job is not to
A) Report Defect
b) Who entered the defect in system
Ans. Who entered the defect in system
 
Q9. Which one is not secondary role of tester
A) Raising Issues
b) Instilling Confidence
c) cts improving process
d) Insight
e) developer work
Ans. developer work
 
Q10. Acceptance testing is
A) White Box
b) Black box
c) White box & black Box
d) none of the above
Ans. Black box
 
Q11. Deming 14 principle includesA) mobility of mgmt
b) new philosphy
c) adobt leadership
d) both b& c
e) both a & c
Ans. both b& c
 
Q12 Configuration Management tool used in which phase.
A) Unit tetsing
b) Integration
c) accepting
d) all the phases
Ans. all the phases
 
Q13. Max Defects created in which phases
 A) req
b) design
c) Implementaion
d) Coding
Ans. Req
 
Q14. 50% Defect found in which phase
A) req
b) design
c) Implementaion
d) Coding
Ans. req
 
Q15. defects are least costly in which phase
A) req
b) design
c) Implementaion
d) Coding
Ans. req
 
Objective Paper 2 :

1) Software inspections categorize defects as Wrong, Missing and Extra.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

2) The purpose of Risk Management in a project is to
A) Eliminate Risks
B) Minimize Risks
C) Avoid risks
D) Anticipate the risks

3) Testing of the system to demonstrate system compliance with user requirements is:
A) Black box testing
B) System testing
C) Independent testing
D) Acceptance Testing

4) Function point is a measure of
A) Effort
B) Complexity
C) Usability
D) None of the above

5) An activity that verifies compliance with policies and procedures and ensures that resources are conserved is
A) an inspection
B) an audit
C) a review
D) an assessment

6) Which is the application for the process management and quality improvement concepts to software development and maintenance.
A) Malcolm Baldridge
B) ISO 9000
C) QAI
D) QS14000

7) Software testing accounts for what percent of software development costs?
A) 10-20
B) 30-60
C) 70-80

8) Software errors are least costly to correct at what stage of the development cycle?
A) Requirements
B) Construction
C) Acceptance test
D) Design

9) Which of the following test approaches is not a Functional test approach?
A) Control Technique
B) Stress Technique
C) Regression Technique
D) Cause/effect Graphing
E) Requirements

10) Effectiveness is doing things right and efficiency is doing the right things
A) True
B) False

11) Juran is famous for
A) Quality Control
B) Quality Assurance
C) Trend Analysis

12) Top down & Bottom Up are the part of Incremental Testing
A) True
B) False

13) Achieving quality requires:
A) Understanding the customers expectations
B) Exceeding the customers expectations
C) Meeting all the definitions of quality
D) Focusing on the customer
E.) All the above


Objective Paper 3:

Q1. there is a application which is delivered to the customer now customer found bugs and assume each bug cost is $125 and there are 4 bugs found each day and there are 5 working day. What should be the cost to fix those bugs
A) $300
b) $25000
c) $ 15000
d) $ 13,000
e) $ 26,000
Ans $2500 

Q2. Tester should know
A) Test planning
b) Automation tool
c) Defect tracking tool
d) programming language
Ans. Defect Tracking tool
 
Q3. Pareto Analysis
A) 80-20 rule
b) Trend analysis
Ans. 80-20 Rule 

Q4. Testing efforts in SDLC
A) 10-20 %
b) 30-60%
c) 60-80%
d) 80-90%
Ans 30-60%
 
Q5. Critical Listening is
A) Listen analyses what speaker said
b) Listen what is required
c) Listen only summary
Ans. Listen analyses what speaker said 

Q6. Who finds vulnerability in system?
A) ICO
b) ISS
c) It Manager
Ans. ICO
 
Q7. COQ is not
A) Production
b) Appraisal
c) Prevention
d) Failure
Ans. Production
 
Q8. Training come under what category cost of quality?
A) Appraisal
b) Preventive
c) Failure
d) none of the above
Ans. Preventive

Q9. Why testing is called negative
A) Easy
b) delay in implementation
c) No training required 

Q10. Incremental testing is Top down & bottom Up testing
A)True B) false 

Q11. Effectiveness is doing right thing & efficiency is doing thing right
True/ false
Ans False
 
Q12. Which one is not part of Development
A) Plan
b) do
c) check
d) act
e) risk analysis
Ans. risk analysis 

Q13. Defect fixed in which phase is lease cost
A) same phase
b) production
c) next phase
d) none
Ans. same phase
 
Q14. In White box testing test coverage is
a) Decision
b) Statement
c) branch
d) modified decision
e) user specified data coverage
Ans. Decision 

Q15. Test Plan should not contain
A) Scope
b) Objective
c) Policy
d) Risk Analysis
Ans. policy
  
Q16. Acceptance Testing is the responsibility of the:
A) Programmer
B) Project Leader
C) Independent Tester
D) Assistance programmer
E) User/Customer 

Q17. Cost of Quality is least among
A) Prevention
B) Appraisal
C) Failure 

Subjective Paper 1: (Most of the subjective questions were from the back of CSTE book.)

1. Why we need to test the software.
2. Write the procedure for Test Plan, Test Script, Test Status Report.
3. You have to test the Web Application, what should be considered for the same.
4. Write test cases for the Data model & data field validation.
5. There is applications which can be accessible by one terminal & other by multiple terminals, write the points which won’t be considered for the Single terminal Application (Test factors)
6. Write the Test Strategy.

Subjective Paper 2:

1. Differentiate between Verification & validation. 15 marks
2. Define Test Efficiency & test Effectiveness. 15 marks
3. Your client would like to do Acceptance test on one of your projects but does not know to prepare a test plan for that. Describe the components that should be included in the test plan. 30 marks
4. You are the tester in the organization and organization thinks that the tester also introduce defects in the system, write the 5 such defects introduced by tester in the system. 15 marks
5. What is Over Testing? 15 marks
6. You have to do the Unit Testing of the system, define what is Unit testing and how it can be done, what are the types of it also how can you ensure that your application is compliance to the standards. 30 marks
7. Define Equivalence portioning, Boundary value Analysis and Error Guessing with examples. 15 marks
8. Your company is doing a project in automation of aircrafts and timing. You are asked to involve in the testing. What should be the testing strategy for that. One Airline Web Application has to be tested, write test factor or What is to be tested? (Landing & take off) 15 marks
9. Define
a) Boundary Analysis
b) Equivalent Partitioning
c) Error Guessing
Give one example for each. 

Subjective Paper 3 
1. Describe four tests you would use to test COTS software.
2. A Web-application is to be installed but suspected that it will might fail in production. Describe four tests you would recommend to your manager to answer the question “How long it would take for the application to recover after it fails”
3. You are the Test Manager of a company, which has outsourced its testing activities. What you would state to your IT Manager in terms of your responsibilities as Test Manager to give him assurance that testing would be conducted properly
4. Describe any four processes you would establish in a test environment and why?

Subjective Paper 4
1. What would you include in a defect report.
2. What is “v” in v-testing concept and list the stages.
3. Draw a Unit testing workbench, describe each activity in the workbench.
4. You are to introduce automated testing tools. List any four automated test tools with vendor name and why did you choose them.
5. Describe Risk, risk analysis, threat, vulnerability, internal control.
6. Describe statement, branch, condition, expression, path coverage
7. Describe any 3 defect-related metrics.
8. For a web-based application, list 4 important quality factors you would test for. Also state why are they important.

ISEB Sample Paper - 3

ISEB Foundation Certificate in Software Testing Practice Exam -3



Q1. Software testing activities should start
a. as soon as the code is written
b. during the design stage
c. when the requirements have been formally documented
d. as soon as possible in the development life cycle

Q2. Faults found by users are due to:
a. Poor quality software
b. Poor software and poor testing
c. bad luck
d. insufficient time for testing

Q3. What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it?
a. to show that system will work after release
b. to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
c. to find as many bugs as possible before release
d. to give information for a risk based decision about release

4. which of the following statements is not true
a. performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of whole system
b. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test
c. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc)
d. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible

Q5. When reporting faults found to developers, testers should be:
a. as polite, constructive and helpful as possible
b. firm about insisting that a bug is not a “feature” if it should be fixed
c. diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism
d. All of the above

Q6. In which order should tests be run?
a. the most important tests first
b. the most difficult tests first(to allow maximum time for fixing)
c. the easiest tests first(to give initial confidence)
d. the order they are thought of

Q7. The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. why?a. the documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing.
b. wages are rising
c. the fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc
d. none of the above

Q8. Which is not true-The black box tester
a. should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document
b. should be able to understand the source code.
c. is highly motivated to find faults
d. is creative to find the system’s weaknesses

Q9. A test design technique is
a. a process for selecting test cases
b. a process for determining expected outputs
c. a way to measure the quality of software
d. a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done

Q10. Testware (test cases, test dataset)
a. needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code
b. should be newly constructed for each new version of the software
c. is needed only until the software is released into production or use
d. does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released software system

Q11. An incident logging system
a. only records defects
b. is of limited value
c. is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents
d. should be used only by the test team.

Q12. Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, will affect the time needed for testing (the test phases) by:
a. reducing test time
b. no change
c. increasing test time
d. can’t say

Q13. Coverage measurement
a. is nothing to do with testing
b. is a partial measure of test thoroughness
c. branch coverage should be mandatory for all software
d. can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing

Q14. When should you stop testing?
a. when time for testing has run out.
b. when all planned tests have been run
c. when the test completion criteria have been met
d. when no faults have been found by the tests run

Q15. Which of the following is true?
a. Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box.
b. if u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software
c. the fewer bugs you find,the better your testing was
d. the more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.

Q 16. What is the important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use?
a. how well you know a particular technique
b. the objective of the test
c. how appropriate the technique is for testing the application
d. whether there is a tool to support the technique

Q17. If the pseudocode below were a programming language ,how many tests are required to achieve 100% statement coverage?
1. If x=3 then
2. Display_messageX;
3. If y=2 then
4. Display_messageY;
5. Else
6. Display_messageZ;
7. Else
8. Display_messageZ;

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

Q18. Using the same code example as question 17,how many tests are required to achieve 100% branch/decision coverage?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

Q19. Which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional test?
a. State-Transition
b. Usability
c. Performance
d. Security

Q20. Which of the following tools would you use to detect a memory leak?
a. State analysis
b. Coverage analysis
c. Dynamic analysis
d. Memory analysis

Q21. Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing?
a. IEEE829
b. IEEE610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2

Q22. Which of the following is the component test standard?
a. IEEE 829
b. IEEE 610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2

Q23. Which of the following statements are true?
a. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.
b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.
c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix
d. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.

Q24. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?
a. Design based
b. Big-bang
c. Bottom-up
d. Top-down

Q25. Which of the following is a black box design technique?
a. statement testing
b. equivalence partitioning
c. error- guessing
d. usability testing

Q26. A program with high cyclometic complexity is almost likely to be:
a. Large
b. Small
c. Difficult to write
d. Difficult to test

Q27. Which of the following is a static test?
a. code inspection
b. coverage analysis
c. usability assessment
d. installation test

Q28. Which of the following is the odd one out?
a. white box
b. glass box
c. structural
d. functional

Q29. A program validates a numeric field as follows:

"values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected"

which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?

a. 10,11,21
b. 3,20,21
c. 3,10,22
d. 10,21,22

Q30. Using the same specifications as question 29, which of the following covers the MOST boundary values?
a. 9,10,11,22
b. 9,10,21,22
c. 10,11,21,22
d. 10,11,20,21

Answers:


1 D
2 B
3 D
4 C
5 D
6 A
7 C
8 B
9 A
10 A
11 C
12 A
13 B
14 C
15 B
16 B
17 C
18 C
19 A
20 C
21 B
22 D
23 C
24 A
25 B
26 D
27 A
28 D
29 C
30 B


ISEB Sample Paper - 2

ISEB Foundation Certificate in Software Testing Practice Exam -2


Q1. A deviation from the specified or expected behaviour that is visible to end-users is called:
a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect

Q2. Regression testing should be performed:
v) every week
W) after the software has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says

a) v & w are true, x, y & z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x, y & z are false

Q3. IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except
a) test items
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test specifications

Q4. When should testing be stopped?
a) when all the planned tests have been run
b) when time has run out
c) when all faults have been fixed correctly
d) it depends on the risks for the system being tested

Q5. Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid boundaries?
a) 1000, 50000, 99999
b) 9999, 50000, 100000
c) 10000, 50000, 99999
d) 10000, 99999, 100000

Q6. Consider the following statements about early test design:
i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. early test design can find faults
iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. early test design normally takes more effort

a) i, iii & iv are true; ii & v are false
b) iii & iv are true; i, ii & v are false
c) i, iii, iv & v are true; ii is false
d) i & ii are true; iii, iv & v are false

Q7. Non-functional system testing includes:
a) testing to see where the system does not function correctly
b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) testing a system function using only the software required for that function
d) testing for functions that should not exist

Q8. Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management?
a) auditing conformance to ISO 9000
b) status accounting of configuration items
c) identification of test versions
d) controlled library access

Q9. Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the small?
a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c) to specify which modules to combine when, and how many at once
d) to specify how the software should be divided into modules

Q10. What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?
a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to determine when to stop testing

Q11. Consider the following statements:
i. an incident may be closed without being fixed.
ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation.
iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing.
iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments.

a) ii is true, i, iii and iv are false
b) i is true, ii, iii and iv are false
c) i and iv are true, ii and iii are false
d) i and ii are true, iii and iv are false

Q12. Given the following code, which statement is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage?

Read p
Read q
IF p+q > 100 THEN
Print "Large"
ENDIF
IF p > 50 THEN
Print "p Large"
ENDIF

a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

Q13. Consider the following statements:

i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.

a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False

Q14. Functional system testing is:
a) testing that the system functions with other systems
b) testing that the components that comprise the system function together
c) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d) testing the system performs functions within specified response times

Q15. Incidents would not be raised against:
a) requirements
b) documentation
c) test cases
d) improvements suggested by users

Q16. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?
a) operating systems
b) test documentation
c) live data
d) user requirement documents

Q17. Maintenance testing is:
a) updating tests when the software has changed
b) testing a released system that has been changed
c) testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need
d) testing to maintain business advantage

Q18. What can static analysis NOT find?
a) the use of a variable before it has been defined
b) unreachable (“dead”) code
c) memory leaks
d) array bound violations

Q19. Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?
a) state transition testing
b) LCSAJ
c) syntax testing
d) boundary value analysis

Q20. Beta testing is:
a) performed by customers at their own site
b) performed by customers at the software developer's site
c) performed by an Independent Test Team
d) performed as early as possible in the lifecycle

Q21. Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers, and which by an independent system test team?

i. static analysis
ii. performance testing
iii. test management
iv. dynamic analysis

a) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii and iii
b) developers would typically use i and iii; test team ii and iv
c) developers would typically use ii and iv; test team i and iii
d) developers would typically use i, iii and iv; test team ii

Q22. The main focus of acceptance testing is:
a) finding faults in the system
b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c) testing the system with other systems
d) testing from a business perspective

Q23. Which of the following statements about component testing is FALSE?
a) black box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
b) white box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d) black box test measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique

Q24. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a) inspection is the most formal review process
b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents

Q25. A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following, EXCEPT:
a) calculating expected outputs
b) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
c) recording test inputs
d) reading test values from a data file

Q26. The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:
a) re-testing ensures the original fault has been removed; regression testing looks for unexpected side-effects
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side-effects; regression testing ensures the original fault has been removed
c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing is done by developers; regression testing is done by independent testers

Q27. Expected results are:
a) only important in system testing
b) only used in component testing
c) most useful when specified in advance
d) derived from the code

Q28. What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics:
a) walkthrough
b) inspection
c) management review
d) post project review

Q29. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
a) component testing
b) non-functional system testing
c) user acceptance testing
d) maintenance testing

Q30. What is NOT included in typical costs for an inspection process?
a) setting up forms and databases
b) analysing metrics and improving processes
c) writing the documents to be inspected
d) time spent on the document outside the meeting

Q31. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:
a) to find faults in the software
b) to prove that the software has no faults
c) to give confidence in the software
d) to find performance problems

Q32. Which expression best matches the following characteristics of the review processes:

1. led by the author
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a moderator or leader
5. uses entry and exit criteria

s) inspection
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walkthrough

a) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
b) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u= 2, v = 3

Q33. Which of the following is NOT part of system testing?
a) business process-based testing
b) performance, load and stress testing
c) usability testing
d) top-down integration testing

Q34. Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?
a) expected outcomes are defined by the software's behaviour
b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
d) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times

Q35. The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS 7925-1
c) ANSI/IEEE 829
d) ANSI/IEEE 729

Q36. The cost of fixing a fault:
a) is not important
b) increases the later a fault is found
c) decreases the later a fault is found
d) can never be determined

Q37. Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard?
a) what is not to be tested
b) test environment properties
c) quality plans
d) schedules and deadlines

Q38. Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing?
a) no, because they apply to development documentation
b) no, because they are normally applied before testing
c) yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
d) yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities

Q39. Which of the following is not part of performance testing?
a) measuring response times
b) recovery testing
c) simulating many users
d) generating many transactions

Q40. Error guessing is best used:
a) after more formal techniques have been applied
b) as the first approach to deriving test cases
c) by inexperienced testers
d) after the system has gone live

Answers:

 
1 C
2 C
3 D
4 D
5 C
6 A
7 B
8 A
9 C
10 D
11 B
12 B
13 D
14 C
15 D
16 C
17 B
18 C
19 B
20 A
21 A
22 D
23 A
24 D
25 A
26 A
27 C
28 B
29 D
30 C
31 B
32 A
33 D
34 A
35 B
36 B
37 C
38 C
39 B
40 A

ISEB Sample Paper - 1

 ISEB Foundation Certificate in Software Testing Practice Exam - 1


Q1. We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:
a) Each test stage has a different purpose.
b) It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c) We can run different tests in different environments.
d) The more stages we have, the better the testing.

Q2. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?
a) Regression testing
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d) User acceptance testing

Q3. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a) A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
b) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
c) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% statement coverage.
d) A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100% branch coverage.

Q4. Which of the following requirements is testable?
a) The system shall be user friendly.
b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c) The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d) The system shall be built to be portable.

Q5. Analyse the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will be £11:20”
ELSE
Say: “That will be £19:50”
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will be £9:75”
ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all replies given.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

Q6. Error guessing:
a) supplements formal test design techniques.
b) can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
c) is only performed in user acceptance testing.
d) is not repeatable and should not be used.

Q7. Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?
a) Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
c) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d) Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.

Q8. In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:
a) find as many faults as possible.
b) test high risk areas.
c) obtain good test coverage.
d) test whatever is easiest to test.

Q9. Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?
v – test control
w – test monitoring
x - test estimation
y - incident management
z - configuration control

1 - calculation of required test resources
2 - maintenance of record of test results
3 - re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - report on deviation from test plan
5 - tracking of anomalous test results

a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2 v-2,
d) w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5

Q10. Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?
a) System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b) Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c) Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d) End-users should be involved in system tests.

Q11. Which of the following is false?
a) Incidents should always be fixed.
b) An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
c) Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
d) An incident can be raised against documentation.

Q12. Enough testing has been performed when:
a) time runs out.
b) the required level of confidence has been achieved.
c) no more faults are found.
d) the users won’t find any serious faults.

Q13. Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.

Q14. Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?
a) syntax testing
b) equivalence partitioning
c) stress testing
d) modified condition/decision coverage

Q15. Which of the following is false?
a) In a system two different failures may have different severities.
b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.

Q16. Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?
a) They are used to support multi-user testing.
b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d) They capture aspects of user behavior.

Q17. How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?
a) Metrics from previous similar projects
b) Discussions with the development team
c) Time allocated for regression testing
d) a & b

Q18. Which of the following is true of the V-model?
a) It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b) It only models the testing phase.
c) It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d) It includes the verification of designs.

Q19. The oracle assumption:
a) is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c) is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
d) is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.

Q20. Which of the following characterises the cost of faults?
a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.

Q21. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?
a) To find faults in the software.
b) To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c) To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
d) To prove that the software is correct.

Q22. Which of the following is a form of functional testing?
a) Boundary value analysis
b) Usability testing
c) Performance testing
d) Security testing

Q23. Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
a) Features to be tested
b) Incident reports
c) Risks
d) Schedule

Q24. Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST?
a) Test management
b) Test design
c) Test execution
d) Test planning

Q25. Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?
a) Statement testing
b) Path testing
c) Data flow testing
d) State transition testing

Q26. Data flow analysis studies:
a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b) the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
c) the use of data on paths through the code.
d) the intrinsic complexity of the code.

Q27. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%The next £28000 is taxed at 22%Any further amount is taxed at 40%To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a) £1500
b) £32001
c) £33501
d) £28000

Q28. An important benefit of code inspections is that they:
a) enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
b) can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
c) can be performed by inexperienced staff.
d) are cheap to perform.

Q29. Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?
a) Actual results
b) Program specification
c) User requirements
d) System specification

Q30. What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?
a) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
c) Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d) A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator

Q31. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?
a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c) It reduces defect multiplication.
d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project.

Q32. Integration testing in the small:
a) tests the individual components that have been developed.
b) tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
c) only uses components that form part of the live system.
d) tests interfaces to other systems

Q33. Static analysis is best described as:
a) the analysis of batch programs.
b) the reviewing of test plans.
c) the analysis of program code.
d) the use of black box testing

Q34. Alpha testing is:
a) post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
b) the first testing that is performed.
c) pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
d) pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.

Q35. A failure is:
a) found in the software; the result of an error.
b) departure from specified behaviour.
c) an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d) a human action that produces an incorrect result.

Q36. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%The next £28000 is taxed at 22%Any further amount is taxed at 40%Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000

Q37. The most important thing about early test design is that it:
a) makes test preparation easier.
b) means inspections are not required.
c) can prevent fault multiplication.
d) will find all faults.

Q38. Which of the following statements about reviews is true?
a) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.

Q39. Test cases are designed during:
a) test recording.
b) test planning.
c) test configuration.
d) test specification.

Q40. A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:
a) linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
b) facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c) the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d) restricted access to the source code library.

Answers:

1 - A
2 - A
3 - D
4 - C
5 - A
6 - A
7 - C
8 - B
9 - C
10 - D
11 - A
12 - B
13 - A
14 - C
15 - B
16 - B
17 - D
18 - D
19 - B
20 - A
21 - D
22 - A
23 - B
24 - C
25 - D
26 - C
27 - C
28 - A
29 - C
30 - D
31 - C
32 - B
33 - C
34 - C
35 - B
36 - D
37 - C
38 - D
39 - D
40 - B

Test Manager Sample Question Set 1

Test Manager Sample Question Set 1 

Q-1: Which of the following is an example of testing as part of the requirements specification phase of a project?
1. A requirements review meeting
2. A business analyst eliciting requirements
3. A database administrator designing a table
4. A test results report showing requirements coverage

Q-2: Assume you are a test manager working on a project to create a programmable thermostat for home use to control central heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) systems. This project is following a sequential lifecycle model, specifically the V-model. Currently, the system architects have released a first draft design specification based on the approved requirements specification released previously.
Identify all of the following that are appropriate test tasks to execute at this time:
1. Design tests from the requirements specification
2. Analyze design-related risks
3. Execute unit test cases
4. Write the test summary report
5. Design tests from the design specification

Q:-3 You are the manager of a bank's quality assessment group, in charge of independent testing for banking applications. You are working on a project to implement an integrated system that will use three off-the-shelf systems to manage a bank's accounts-receivable system.
Identify all of the following that are test levels that you would expect to directly manage:
1. Component testing for each system
2. Component integration testing for each system
3. System testing for each system
4. Contract acceptance testing for each system
5. System integration testing

Q-4: Which of the following is generally applicable to demonstrating compliance to regulations for safety critical systems?
1. Test traceability
2. ISO 61508
3. Usability testing
4. Employee evaluations

Q-5: Which of the following is an accurate statement that captures a difference between a trend chart showing the total number of bugs discovered and resolved during test execution and a trend chart showing the total number of test cases passed and failed during test execution?
1. The bug trend chart will reveal test progress problems while the test case trend chart
will not.
2. The bug trend chart will show test coverage while the test case trend chart will not.
3. The test case trend chart will reveal test progress problems while the bug trend chart
will not.
4. The test case trend chart will show test coverage while the bug trend chart will not.

Q-6: Considering the typical objectives of testing that are identified in the Foundation syllabus, which of the following metrics can we use to measure the effectiveness of the test process in achieving one of those objectives?
1. Average days from defect discovery to resolution
2. Lines of code written per developer per day
3. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
4. Percentage of requirements coverage

Q-7: Assume you are a test manager working on a project to create a programmable thermostat for home use to control central heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) systems. This project is following a sequential lifecycle model, specifically the V-model. Your test team is following a risk-based testing strategy augmented with a reactive testing strategy during test execution to ensure that key risks missed during risk analysis are caught.
Of the following statements, identify all that are true about the test plan.
1. The test plan should include risk analysis early in the process.
2. The test plan should list the requirements specification as an input to the risk analysis.
3. The test plan should assign specific bugs to specific developers.
4. The test plan should discuss the integration of reactive test techniques into test
execution.
5. The test plan should specify overall project team metrics used to determine bonuses

Q-8: Which of the following is a test document in which you would you expect to find the preconditions to start executing a level of testing?
1. Test plan
2. Test design specification
3. Incident report
4. Project plan

Q-9: Which of the following is the most likely reason a user might be included in test execution?
1. Their application domain knowledge
2. Their technical expertise
3. Their testing expertise
4. Their management expertise

Q-10: You are the manager of a bank's quality assessment group, in charge of independent testing for banking applications. You have just concluded a project to implement an integrated system that will use three off-the-shelf systems to manage a bank's accounts-receivable system. During the project, you found that one of the vendor's systems, while comprising approximately the same amount of functionality and of roughly the same complexity as the other two systems, had significantly more defects. Making no assumptions other than ones based on the information provided here, which of the following is a reasonable improvement to the test process for subsequent projects involving this vendor?
1. Impose retroactive financial penalties on this vendor for the number of bugs delivered
on this project.
2. Perform an acceptance test for all systems received, with particular rigor for this vendor.
3. Cancel the contract with this vendor and put it on an industry blacklist.
4. Require the vendor's developers to attend training to improve their ability to write
quality code.

Q-11: Which of the following is a project risk mitigation step that you might take as a test manager?
1. Testing for performance problems
2. Hiring a contractor after a key test analyst quits
3. Procuring extra test environments in case one fails during testing
4. Performing a project retrospective using test results

Q-12: You are planning the testing for an integrated system that will use three off-the-shelf components to manage a bank's accounts-receivable system. You are conducting an informal quality risk analysis session with project and system stakeholders to determine what test conditions should be tested and how much each test condition should be tested. Which of the following is a quality risk item that you might identify in this quality risk analysis session?
1. Failure of a component vendor to conduct adequate component testing
2. Calculation of excessive late-payment penalties for invoices
3. On-time payment of all invoices for international vendors
4. Calculation of risk priority using likelihood and impact

Q-13: During a formalized quality risk analysis session following the Failure Mode and Effect Analysis technique, you are calculating risk priorities. Which of the following are major factors in this calculation?
1. Severity and priority
2. Functionality, reliability, usability, efficiency, maintainability, and portability
3. Loss of a key contributor on the test team
4. Loss of a key contributor on the development team

Q-14: Assume you are a test manager in charge of integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing for a bank. You are working on a project to upgrade an existing automated teller machine system to allow customers to obtain cash advances from supported credit cards. The system should allow cash advances from $20 to $500, inclusively, for all supported credit cards. The supported credit cards are American Express, Visa, Japan Credit Bank, Eurocard, and MasterCard.
Which of the following statements best associates a key stakeholder with the kind of input that stakeholder can provide during a quality risk analysis?
1. A tester can provide input on the likelihood of a risk item.
2. A developer can provide input on the impact of a risk item.
3. A business analyst can provide input on the likelihood of a risk item.
4. A help desk staffer can provide input on the impact of a risk item.

Q-15: Which of the following is a situation in which you would expect an iterative quality risk analysis to result in the largest number of new or changed risk items and risk levels?
1. You perform a risk analysis on the final requirements specification and subsequently
receive a draft design specification.
2. A tester leaves after test design is complete, and you hire a new tester to replace her.
3. The development manager hires two additional programmers after the quality risk
analysis is complete.
4. You perform a risk analysis on the final requirements specification and then that
document is placed under formal configuration management.

Q-16: Assume you are a test manager working on a project to create a programmable thermostat for home use to control central heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) systems. In addition to the normal HVAC control functions, the thermostat also has the ability to download data to a browser-based application that runs on PCs for further analysis. During quality risk analysis, you identify compatibility problems between the browser-based application and the different PC configurations that can host that application as a quality risk item with a high level of likelihood. You plan to perform compatibility testing to address this risk.
Which of the following is a way in which you might monitor the effect of testing on the reduction of this risk during test execution?
1. Reduce the number of supported PC configurations.
2. Assign more testers to cover compatibility than testers to cover functionality.
3. Analyze the number of defects found that relate to this risk item.
4. Plan to test the most common PC configurations.

Q-17: Which of the following is an example of a project where failure mode and effect analysis would be a better choice for risk analysis?
1. It is the project team's first application of risk-based testing.
2. The system under test is both complex and safety critical.
3. The system under test is a financial system.
4. Minimizing the amount of documentation is a key concern.

Q-18: Assume you are a test manager in charge of integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing for a bank. You are working on a project to upgrade an existing automated teller machine system to allow customers to obtain cash advances from supported credit cards. The system should allow cash advances from $20 to $500, inclusively, for all supported credit cards. The supported credit cards are American Express, Visa, Japan Credit Bank, Eurocard, and MasterCard.
In the master test plan, the Features to be Tested section lists the following:
1. All supported credit cards
2. Language localization
3. Valid and invalid advances
4. Usability
5. Response time
Relying only on the information given above, select the features to be tested for which
sufficient information is available to proceed with test design.
1. I
2. II
3. III
4. IV
5. V

Q-19: Continue with the scenario described in the previous question. Which of the following topics would you need to address in detail in the master test plan?
1. A strategy for regression testing
2. A list of advance amount boundary values
3. A description of intercase dependencies
4. A logical collection of test cases

Q-20: Assume you are a test manager working on a project to create a programmable thermostat for home use to control central heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) systems. In addition to the normal HVAC control functions, the thermostat also has the ability to download data to a browser-based application that runs on PCs for further analysis.
The company test strategy calls for each test case to be run on all combinations of
configuration options. For this system, you identify the following factors and, for each factor, the following options:
 Supported PC/thermostat connections: USB and Bluetooth
 Supported operating systems: Windows 2000, Windows XP, Windows Vista, Mac X, Linux
 Supported browsers: Internet Explorer, Firefox, Opera
Because there are 10 test cases that involve downloading data, this would require running 300 test cases, each of which requires an hour to run.
With management approval, you decide to test five configurations, covering each option but not all the possible pairs and triples of options.
Which of the following statements describes the best option for documenting this deviation from the test strategy?
1. In the test design specifications, explain the alternate approach planned for this project
and how to set up the test configurations.
2. In the test procedure specifications, explain which test cases should be run against
which configurations.
3. In the master test plan, explain the alternate approach planned for this project and why
this approach is sufficient.
4. In the test item transmittal report, explain the alternate approach planned for this
project and which test items were tested against which configuration.

Q-21: Continue with the scenario described in the previous question. You are writing a master test plan to cover integration testing and system testing of the programmable thermostat. Select all of the following statements that are true.
1. The approach section should describe how to test the integration of the thermostat with
other parts of the HVAC system.
2. The schedule section should describe when integration testing should start and when
system testing should start.
3. The environmental needs section should address who is responsible for each level of
testing.
4. The test items section should describe the equipment required for each level of testing.
5. The test deliverables section should describe results reporting for each level of testing.

Q-22: 12. Continue with the scenario described in the previous questions, where you are a test manager working on a project to create a programmable thermostat for home use to control central heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) systems. One critical quality risk identified for this system is the possibility of damage to the HVAC system caused by excessive cycling of the compressor (i.e., turning the unit on and off repeatedly in short intervals). Which of the following is a reasonable way to use an IEEE 829 test plan to direct appropriate testing for this risk?
1. Write a separate test plan for this level of testing.
2. List the feature that prevents excessive cycling as a feature to be tested.
3. Detail all of the requirements of the programmable thermostat in the introduction of the
test plan.
4. Include a fully functioning compressor as one of the test items.

Q-23: Continue with the scenario from the previous question.
Historically, on seven past projects, the test team has found approximately 12 bugs during system test for each person-month of development team effort. Five developers are assigned to work on a new project that is scheduled to last six months. Assume that the cumulative number of bugs found, as shown in your convergence chart, has flattened at 351 defects. Based on this information only, which of the following statements is most likely to be true?
1. You would expect to find exactly 20 more defects before the end of system test.
2. You have omitted tests for at least one critical quality risk category.
3. You needed a test team of at least three testers for optimum testing.
4. You have found roughly the number of defects you would expect to find during system
test.

Q-24: Continue with the scenario from the previous question.
Assume that this project is following an iterative lifecycle, while the previous projects for which you have bug metrics followed a sequential lifecycle. Assuming no other dissimilarities between this project and the previous projects exist, which of the following might be a reason to question the accuracy of the predicted number of defects?
1. People factors
2. Material factors
3. Process factors
4. Quality factors

Q-25: You are a test manager in charge of system testing on a project to update a cruise-control module for a new model of a car. The goal of the cruise-control software update is to make the car more fuel efficient.
You have written a first release of the system test plan based on the final requirements
specification. You receive an early draft of the design specification. Identify all of the following statements that are true.
1. Do not update the system test plan until the final version of the design specification is
available.
2. Produce a draft update of the system test plan based on this version of the design
specification.
3. Check this version of the design specification for inconsistencies with the requirements
specification.
4. Participate in the final review of the design specification but not any preliminary reviews
of the design specification.
5. Review the quality risk analysis to see if the design specification has identified additional
risk items.

Q-26: 16. Which of the following is the best example of a technique for controlling test progress in terms of the residual level of quality risk?
1. Counting the number of defects found and the number of defects resolved
2. Counting the number of test cases passed and the number of test cases failed
3. Counting the number of requirements that work properly and the number of
requirements with known defects
4. Counting the number of tested risk items without known defects and the number of
tested risk items with known defects

Q-27: You are a test manager in charge of system testing on a project to update a cruise-control module for a new model of a car. The goal of the cruise-control software update is to make the car more fuel efficient.
Halfway through test execution, you find that the test results do not conclusively determine whether fuel efficiency has improved. Identify all of the following actions that you might direct the test analysts to take to help to resolve this problem.
1. Redesign the fuel efficiency tests.
2. Revise the quality risk analysis.
3. Modify the test environment to gather more detailed actual results.
4. Check for consistency in tested fuel mixtures.
5. Report fuel efficiency as apparently unchanged.

Q-28: Assume you are a test manager in charge of integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing for a bank. You are working on a project to upgrade an existing automated teller machine system to allow customers to obtain cash advances from supported credit cards.
The system should allow cash advances from $20 to $500, inclusively, for all supported credit cards. The supported credit cards are American Express, Visa, Japan Credit Bank, Eurocard, and MasterCard.
During test execution, you find five defects, each reported by a different tester, that involve the same problem with cash advances, with the only difference between these reports being the credit card tested. Which of the following is an improvement to the test process that you might suggest?
1. Revise all cash advance test cases to test with only one credit card.
2. Review all reports filed subsequently and close any such duplicate defect reports before
assignment to development.
3. Change the requirements to delete support for American Express cards.
4. Have testers check for similar problems with other cards and report their findings in
defect reports.

Q-29: You are the manager of a bank's quality assessment group, in charge of independent testing for banking applications. You are working on a project to implement an integrated system that will use three off-the-shelf systems to manage a bank's accounts-receivable system. You are currently managing the execution of system integration testing.
Consider the following bug open/closed or convergence chart.
Which of the following interpretations of this chart provides a reason to not declare the system integration testing complete?
1. The bug find rate has not leveled off.
2. Developers aren't fixing bugs fast enough.
3. The complete set of tests has not yet been run.
4. A number of unresolved bugs remain in the backlog.

Q-30: Which of the following is an example of a cost of internal failure?
1. Finding a bug during testing
2. Training developers in secure coding practices
3. Designing test cases
4. Fixing a customer-detected bug

Q-31: You are the manager of a bank's quality assessment group, in charge of independent testing for banking applications. You are in charge of testing for a project to implement an integrated system that uses three off-the-shelf components to manage a bank's accounts-receivable system.
Which of the following is most likely to be a major business motivation for testing this system?
1. Avoiding loss of life
2. Having confidence in correct customer billing
3. Finding as many bugs as possible before release
4. Gathering evidence to sue the component vendors

Q-32: Which of the following is a risk of outsourced testing that might not apply to distributed testing?
1. Selection of an improper test partner
2. Communication problems created by time zone differences
3. Insufficient skills in some of the test team members
4. Inconsistent test processes across the testing locations

Q-33: You are the manager of a bank's quality assessment group, in charge of independent testing for banking applications. You used quality risk analysis to allocate effort and prioritize
your tests during test preparation. You are currently executing the system integration test. You have finished running each test case once. You are not certain how much time the project management team will allow for additional test execution because regulatory changes might require the system to be activated ahead of schedule.
Based on the severity and priority of the bugs found by each test case, you have calculated weighted failure for each test case. You also know the risk priority number for each test case based on the quality risk item(s) the test case covers. Considering both the weighted failure and the risk priority number, you have reprioritized your test cases for the final days or weeks of testing.
Which of the following is a benefit this reprioritization will provide?
1. If testing is curtailed, you will have expended the minimum amount of effort possible.
2. If testing is extended, you will have time to run all of your tests.
3. If testing is curtailed, you will have run the most important tests.
4. If testing is extended, you will have covered all of the requirements.

Q-34: Which of the following is a benefit of exploratory testing and other reactive test strategies that would not apply to an analytical requirements-based test strategy?
1. The ability to utilize a very experienced test team
2. The ability to accurately predict the residual risk prior to delivery
3. The ability to prevent defects during requirements analysis
4. The ability to test effectively without a complete test basis

Q-35: Which of the following is a type of defect that you can detect more easily in a review than by a dynamic test?
1. Regression
2. Maintainability
3. Performance
4. Reliability

Q-36: Which of the following is a type of review in which you would expect to detect the greatest percentage of defects present in the item under review?
1. Informal
2. Static analysis
3. Simulation
4. Inspection

Q-37: Assume you are a test manager working on a project to create a programmable thermostat for home use to control central heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) systems. In addition to the normal HVAC control functions, the thermostat has the ability to download data to a browser-based application that runs on PCs for further analysis. During quality risk analysis, you identify compatibility problems between the browser-based application and the different PC configurations that can host that application as a quality risk item with a high level of likelihood. Select all of the following actions that should occur in the quality and test plans to best ensure that the project team will minimize this risk upon release?
1. Carefully select the list of supported configurations.
2. Review the list of supported configurations with project stake—holders.
3. Support only a single browser based on technical attributes.
4. Downgrade the likelihood of the risk based on available test resources.
5. Test the supported PC configurations early in test execution.

Q-38: Assume you are a test manager in charge of integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing for a bank. You are working on a project to upgrade an existing automated teller machine system to allow customers to obtain cash advances from supported credit cards.
You have received a requirements specification that states that the system should allow cash advances from $20 to $500, inclusively, for all supported credit cards. Assume that the bank is required contractually to support the following credit cards: American Express, Visa, Japan Credit Bank, Eurocard, and MasterCard.
The bank has given you the responsibility of organizing a review of the requirements
specification. Which of the following is a risk for this review?
1. You do not know the supported credit cards.
2. You do not include the proper stakeholders in the review.
3. You do not know which test levels to address.
4. You do not receive the requirements specification.

Q-39: Assume you are a test manager working on a project to create a programmable thermostat for home use to control central heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) systems. In addition to the normal HVAC control functions, the thermostat has the ability to download data to a browser-based application that runs on PCs for further analysis. During quality risk analysis, you identify compatibility problems between the browser-based application and the different PC configurations that can host that application as a quality risk item with a high level of likelihood.
Your test team is currently executing compatibility tests. Consider the following excerpt from the failure description of a compatibility bug report:
1. Connect the thermostat to a Windows Vista PC.
2. Start the thermostat analysis application on the PC. Application starts normally and
recognizes connected thermostat.
3. Attempt to download the data from the thermostat.
4. Data does not download.
5. Attempt to download the data three times. Data will not down—load.
Based on this information alone, which of the following is a problem that exists with this bug
report?
1. Lack of structured testing
2. Inadequate classification information
3. Insufficient isolation
4. Poorly documented steps to reproduce

Q-40: Continue with the previous scenario. Your test team is still executingcompatibility tests. Consider the following excerpt from the failure description of a compatibility bug report:
1. Install the thermostat analysis application on a Windows XP PC.
2. Attempt to start the thermostat analysis application.
3. Thermostat analysis application does not start.
4. Reinstall the thermostat analysis application three times. Thermo—stat analysis
application does not start after any reinstallation.
5. This test passed on the previous test release.
Based on this information alone, which of the following is the most reasonable hypothesis about
this bug?
1. The bug might be a regression.
2. The bug might be intermittent.
3. The application didn't install on Windows XP PCs before.
4. The bug might be a duplicate.


Answers:
1. A
2. A, B, E
3. D, E
4. A
5. C
6. D
7. A, B, D
8. A
9. A
10. B
11. C
12. B
13. A
14. D
15. A
16. C
17. B
18. A, C
19. A
20. C
21. A, B, E
22. B
23. D
24. C
25. A, C, E
26. D
27. A, C, D
28. D
29. D
30. A
31. B
32. A
33. C
34. D
35. B
36. D
37. A, B, E
38. B
39. C
40. A