ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 31

1. File Integrity falls under

a. compliance testing

b. disaster testing

c. verifying compliance to rules

d. functional testing

e. ease of operations

2.Operations testing is

a. compliance tesitng

b. disaster testing

c. verifying compliance to rules

d. functional testing

e. ease of operatins

3.Security falls under

a. compliance testing

b. disaster testing

c. verifying compliance to rules

d. functional testing

e. ease of operations

4.Portability falls under

a. compliance testing

b. disaster testing

c. verifying compliance to rules

d. fuctional testing

e. ease of operations

5.What are the four attributes to be present in any test problem?

a. statement, criteria, effect and cause

b. priority, fix, schedule and report

c. statement, fix effect and report

d. none of the above

6.Which is not the Phase of SDLC?

a. Initiation Phase

b. Defintion Phase

c. Planning Phase

d. Programming and Training Phase

7.Comparision of the expected benefit versus the cost of the solution is done in which phase of SDLC?

a. Defintion Phase

b. Design Phase

b. Initiation Phase

d. Implementation Phase

8.Who is the policy/oversight participant in SDLC?

a. Project Manager

b. Contracting Office

c. Information Technology Manager

d. Information Resorces Management Official

9. Who reviews proposed procurement for sufficiency in the acquisition and

installation of the Off-the-Self Software?

a. Sponsor / User

b. Project Manager

c. IT Manger

d. All of the Above

10. “V” testing process is

a. System development process and system test process begins

b. Testing starts after coding is done

c. Do procedures are followed by Check procedures

d. Testing starts after the prototype is done

11. Validation is

a. Execute test

b. Review code

c. Desk check

d. Audit

12. Which is not in sequence in 11 Step Software Testing process

a. Assess development plan and status

b. Develop the test plan

c. Test software design

d. Test software requirement

13. Structural testing is

a. Requirements are properly satisfied by the application

b. Uncover errors during “Coding” of the program

c. Functions works properly

d. To test how the business requirements are implemented.

14. Functional testing is

a. Path testing

b. Technology has been used properly

c. Uncover errors that occurs in implementing requirements.

d. Uncover errors in program unit.

15. Structural testing is NOT

a. Installation testing

b. Stress testing

c. Recovery testing

d. Compliance testing

16.Stress testing transaction can be obtained from

a. Test Data generators

b. Test transactions created by the test group

c. Transactions previously processed in the production evironment

d. All of the above.

17.Who will assess vulnerability in the system

a. Internal Control Officer

b. System Security Officer

c. QA Engineer

d. Test Manager

18.What is the structure testing process

a. Parallel

b. Regression

c. Stress

d. Intersystem

19.What is Risk analysis?

a. Evaluating risks

b. Evaluating Controls

c. Evaluating vulnerabilities

d. All of the above

20.Major component of Risk Analysis are

a. The probability that the negative event will occur

b. The potential loss is very high

c. The potential loss or impact associated with the event

21. Method of conducting Risk Analysis is

a. Use your judgment

b. Use your instict

c. Cost of failure

d. All of the above

22.Which is not Testing Risk

a. Budget

b. Number of qualified test resources

c. Sequence and increments of code delivery

d. Inadequately tested applications

23.If abnormal termination type X occurs 100 times per year, and the loss per occurrence is $500, then the loss associated with the risk is $50,000. What methods of measuring the magnitude of risk I am using?

a. Judgment

b. Annual loss expectation estimation

c. Risk Formula

d. Consensus

24. What is Cascading error?

a. Unrelated errors

b. Triggers a second unrelated error in another part

c. A functionality could not be tested

d. Two similar errors

25. Configuration defects will be introduced if

a. Environment is not stable

b. Environment does not mirror test environment

c. Environment does not mirror production environment

d. All of the above

26. Quality Risk is

a. Requirement comply with methodology

b. Incorrect result will be produced

c. Result of the system are unreliable

d. Complex technology used.

27. Risk control objectives are established in

a. Design phase

b. Requirement Phase

c. Testing Phase

d. Implementation Phase

28. Which of the following is not Risk characteristic

a. Inherent in every project

b. Neither intrinsically good not bad

c. Something to fear but not something to manage

d. Probability of loss

29. Application developed should fit user’s business process. The components of fit are

a. Data

b. People

c. Structure

d. All of the above

30. Which is not the responsibility of customer/ user of the software

a. Plan how and by whom each acceptance activity will be performed

b. Prepare the acceptance plan

c. Prepare resource plan

d. Plan resources for providing information on which to base acceptance decisions

31.In preparation for developing the acceptance criteria, the user should

a. Know the defects in the application

b. Acquire the basis knowledge of the application for which the system is intended

c. Understand the risks and benefits of the development methodology that is to be used in correcting the software system

d. Know new enhancement and basic understanding of how the application is implemented in users organization

32.Acceptance requirements that a system should meet is

a. Usability

b. Understandablity

c. Functionality

d. Enhancements

33.Testing techniques that can be used in acceptance testing are

a. Structural

b. Functional

c. Usability

d. A and B

e. B and C

34.For final software acceptance testing, the system should include

a. Delivered software

b. All user documents

c. Final version of other sofware deliverables

d. All of the above

35.Accepatance testing means

a. Testing performed on a single stand-alone module or unit of code

b. Testing after changes has been made to ensure that no unwanted changes were introduced

c. Testing to ensure that the system meets the need of the organization and end user.

d. Users test the application in the developers environment

36.Acceptance tests are normally conduced by the

a. Developers

b. End users

c. Test team

d. System engineers

37. Which is not test result data

a. Test factors

b. Interface objective

c. Platform

d. Test estimation

38. What type of test that will be conducted during the execution of tests, which will be based on software requirements. What category of status data I am looking?

a. Test Result

b. Test Transaction

c. Defects

d. Efficiency

39. Summary (project)status report provides

a. General view of a project

b. General view of all the projects

c. Detailed view of all the projects

d. Detailed information about a project

40. Project status report provides

a. General view of a project

b. General view of all the projects

c. Detailed view of all the projects

d. Detailed information about a project

Answers:

Q.1-D
Q.2-E
Q.3-A
Q.4-B
Q.5-A
Q.6-C
Q.7-C
Q.8-D
Q.9-A
Q.10-A
Q.11-A
Q.12-C
Q.13-B
Q.14-C
Q.15-B
Q.16-D
Q.17-A
Q.18-C
Q.19-D
Q.20-D
Q.21-D
Q.22-D
Q.23-C
Q.24-B
Q.25-D
Q.26-A
Q.27-B
Q.28-C
Q.29-D
Q.30-C
Q.31-C
Q.32-C
Q.33-D
Q.34-D
Q.35-C
Q.36-B
Q.37-D
Q.38-B
Q.39-B
Q.40-D

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 30

1.Verification performed without any executable code is referred to as

a) Review

b) Static testing

c) Validation

d) Sanity testing

2.If Quality Control and Quality Assurance are compared

a) Both are literally the same

b) QA is a higher activity in the management Hierarchy

c) QC ia a higher activity in the management Hierarchy

d) QA is done by the client and QC si done by the software vendor

3.The extent of automation for a given project is generally guided by

a) Scope for automation

b) Tool support

c) Business Functionality

d) Vendor's skills

4.Test data planning essentially includes

a) Network

b) Operational Model

c) Boundary value analysis

d) Test Procedure Planning

5.Which of the following is not a client side statistics in load testing

a) Hits per second

b) Throughput

c) Cache hit ratio

d) Transaction per second

6.Feasibility study is more imoprtant before load testing

a) Web Applications

b) Client-server applications

c) Mainframe applications

d) Citrix applications

7.Which one of the following need not be part of the bug tracker?

a) Bug identifier

b) One line bug description

c) Severity of the bug

d) None of the above

8.Which of the following approach needs to be taken if there are a large number of defects being found in the software?

1. Try continuing testing and logging the critical defects.

2. Immediately stop testing the product.

3. Inform the lead/manager providing proper documentation

4. Continue testing in the normal manner

a) 1 and 3

b) 3 and 4

c) 2 only

d) 3 only

9.What if the application has functionality that wasn't in the requirements?

a) Ignore testing that functionality

b) Continue to test the functionality and report the results

c) Update the Project Manager with the details and the risk involved

d) None of the above

10.What are the key features to be concentrated upon when doing a testing for

world wide web sites

a) Interaction between html pages

b) Performance on the client side

c) Security aspects

d) All of the above

11.What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing?

a) Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested

b) Use automation tool for testing

c) a and b

d) None of the above

12.The selection of test cases for regression testing

a) Requires knowledge on the bug fixes and how it affect the system

b) Includes the area of frequent defects

c) Includes the area which has undergone many/recent code changes

d) All of the above

13.What are the main attributes of test automation

1. Time saving

2. Correctness

3. Less Manpower

4. More reliable

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1, 2 , 3 and 4

d) None of the above

14.Some of the common problems of test automation are

a) Changing requirements

b) Lack of time

c) Both a and b

d) None of the above

15.Some of the metrics which are collected in a testing project are

Productivity

Test effectiveness

Requirement stability

Bug fix rate

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1,2, and 4

d) 1 and 4

16.Test Suit Manager

a) A tool that specifies an order of actions that should be performed during a test session

b) A software package that cretes test transactions for testing application systems and programs

c) A tool that allows testers to recognize test script by function or other grouping

d) None of the above

17.Baseline means

a) A single software product that may or may not fully support a business function

b) A quantitative measure of the current level of performance

c) A test or analysis coducted after an application is moved into production

d) None of the above

18.A document describing any event during the testing process that requires investigation

a) Test log

b) Test Incident report

c) Test Cycle

d) Test Item

19.The purpose of this event is to review the application user interface and other human factors of the application with the people who will be using the application.

a) User Acceptance test

b) Usablity test

c) Validation

d) None of the above

20.What is used to measure the characteristics of the documentation and code?

a) Process metrics

b) Product metrics

c) Software Quality metrics

d) None of the above

21.Use of an executable model to represent the behavior of an object is called

a) Simulation

b) Software item

c) Software feature

d) None of the above

22.Benchmarking is

a) Comparing your company’s products services or processes against

best practices or competitive practices to help define superior

performance of a product service or support process.

b) A quantitative measure of the current level of performance

c) A test or analysis conducted after an application is moved into production

c) None of the above

23.Recovery testing is a system test that forces the software to fail and verifies that data recovery is properly performed.

The following should be checked for correctness

1. Re-initialization

2. Restart

3. Data Recovery

4. Check Point Mechanism

a) 1 and 2

b) 1, 2 and 3

c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

d) 2 and 4

24.UAT is different from other testing types normally because of

a) Data

b) Cycles

c) Defects

d) None of the above

25.Alpha testing is differentiated from Beta testing by

a) The location where the tests are conducted.

b) The types of test conducted

c) The people doing the testing

d) The degree to which white box techniques are used

26. What is the need for test planning

a) to utilize a balance of testing techniques

b) to understand testing process

c) to collect metrics

d) to perform ad hoc testing.

27. Which of the following is NOT a part of Test plan document?

a. assumptions

b) communication approach

c) risk analysis

d) status report

28. Which part of Test plan will define 'What will and will not be covered in the test'?

a) test scopt

b) test objective

c) both a & b

d) none of the above

29. Test objective is simply a testing

a) direction

b) vision

c) mission

d) goal

30. Which out of the below is NOT  a concern for testers to complete a test plan

a) not enough tranining

b) lack of test tools

c) enough time for testing

d) rapid change

31.The effort taken to create a test plan shoule be

a) half of the total test effort

b) one-third of the total test efforts

c) two times of the total test effort

d) one-fifth of the total test effort

32.What do you mean by 'Having to say NO'

a) No, the problem is not with testers

b) No, the software is not ready for production

c) Both a and b

d) none of the above

33.Tools like change Man, Clear case are used as

a) functional automation tools

b) performance testing tools

c) configuration management tools

d) none of the above

34.In Life cycle approach to testing, test execution occurs

a) during testing phase

b) during requirement phase

c) during coding phase

d) none of the above

35. Who is responsible for conducting test readiness review?

a. Test manager

b. Test engineer

c. both A & B

d. Project Manager

36. What is NOT a test log?

a. Maps the test results to requirements

b. Records test activities

c. Maintains control over the test

d. Contains pass or fail results.

37. When Integration testing should begin

a. during black-box testing

b. once unit testing is complete for the integrating components

c. Before unit testing is complete

d. All of the above

38. Which is NOT a part of integration testing

a. Validation of the links between the clients and server

b. Output interface file accuracy

c. back-out situations

d. none of the above.

39. When to stop testing?

a. When all quality goals defined at the start of the project have been

met.

b. When running short of time

c. When all test cases are executed

d. all the above

40. Authorization _________

a. compliance testing

b. disaster testing

c. verifying compliance to rules

d. functional testing

e. ease of operations

Answers:
Q.1-B
Q.2-C
Q.3-A
Q.4-C
Q.5-C
Q.6-A
Q.7-D
Q.8-A
Q.9-C
Q.10-D
Q.11-A
Q.12-D
Q.13-C
Q.14-C
Q.15-C
Q.16-C
Q.17-B
Q.18-B
Q.19-B
Q.20-B
Q.21-A
Q.22-A
Q.23-C
Q.24-A
Q.25-A
Q.26-A
Q.27-D
Q.28-A
Q.29-D
Q.30-C
Q.31-B
Q.32-B
Q.33-C
Q.34-D
Q.35-A
Q.36-A
Q.37-B
Q.38-D
Q.39-A
Q.40-C